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I have a question about the ARCH(1) process. Let \((\Omega, \mathcal F, P)\) be a probability space, let \((Z_t)_{t \in \mathbb Z}\) be a sequence of i.i.d. real-valued random variables with mean zero and variance one. A stochastic process \((X_t)_{t \in \mathbb Z}\) is an ARCH(1)-process if it is strictly stationary and if, for all \(t\) and some process \((\sigma_t)\) with \(\sigma_t > 0\) for every \(t\), one has \(X_t = \sigma_t Z_t\) and \(\sigma_t^2 = \alpha_0 + \alpha_1 X_{t-1}^2\), where \(\alpha_0 > 0\) and \(\alpha_1 \ge 0\). Let \(\mathcal F_t\) be the natural filtration of the process \((X_t)\), i.e. \(\mathcal F_t = \sigma(X_s; s \le t)\).
I want to prove that \((X_t)\) has the Markov property, i.e. for each \(B \in \mathcal B(\mathbb R)\) and for all \(s, t \in\mathbb Z\) with \(s < t\), one has \(P[X_t \in B \mid \mathcal F_s] = P[X_t \in B \mid X_s]\). Is that possible?
ANswer
For s < t we can write:
Here the notation \(x = X_s\) denotes that we don't integrate over \(X_s\) anymore, but set the value of \(x\) in the expection by evaluating \(X_s\) first. In the last step we just go back the steps before but with \(\sigma\)-Algebra \(X_s\). This shows \(\Bbb{P}[X_t \in B | \mathcal{F}_s] = \Bbb{P}[X_t \in B | X_s]\), but it is not the full Markov property. For the Markov property you need additionally \(\Bbb{P}[X_t \in B | X_s] = \Bbb{P}[X_{t-s} \in B | X_0 = x]_{x= X_s}\), but this follow from the calculations above, because the \(Z_t\) are i.i.d.
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