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1. The overall project management must comprehensively consider all relevant processes of the project and focus on the characteristics of the overall management. Among the following statements, ( ) is incorrect.
A. The various goals and plans of the project may conflict, and the project manager must make unified trade-offs.
B. The project manager must resolve the overlapping responsibilities between processes
C. The project manager does not need to consider processes that may not be needed in the project.
D. The project manager should integrate the project's deliverables with the company's operations
Answer: C
Analysis: Most experienced project managers know that there is no single way to manage projects. They apply project management knowledge, techniques, and processes required in varying orders and degrees in order to achieve desired project performance. However, the fact that a specific process is not required does not mean that the process is not identified. The project manager and project team must identify each of these processes and the extent to which they will be implemented for each specific project. The project manager must integrate the project's deliverables with the company's operations. The goal of the deliverables is for future operations. For processes that may not be needed in the project, the project manager must consider the long-term and integrate the process with each project process and current Consider the future as a whole and cannot ignore it.
2. When formulating the project charter, the project manager of a system integration project must consider the environmental and organizational factors involved in and affecting the project. ( ) Content that does not belong to environmental and organizational factors.
A. Company culture and structure
B. Employee performance evaluation records
C. Change control process
D. Project management information system
Answer: C
Analysis: The change control process project team can select and add to it, and it is a process asset.
3. Among the following statements about information system project risks, which one is incorrect ( ).
A. Information system project risk is an uncertainty or condition that, if it occurs, will have a positive or negative impact on the project objectives
B. Information system project risks include both threats to project objectives and opportunities to project objectives.
C. Uncertain events are sufficient conditions for the definition of information system project risks
D. Known risks of information system projects are those risks that have been identified and analyzed and whose consequences are foreseeable
Answer: C
Analysis: In this question, C cannot be said to be wrong. But the three options of ABD are the original words in the book. So choose C by elimination method.
4. In the following overview of the project charter, which one is correct ( ).
A. The project charter is consistent with the contract content
B. The project charter should be issued by the project manager
c. The project charter should clarify the status of the project in the organization
D. The project charter is a procedural document
Answer: C
Analysis: The role of project charter
(1) Determine the project manager and stipulate the project manager’s powers.
(2) Officially confirm the existence of the project and give the project a legal status.
(3) Specify the overall goals of the project, including scope, time, cost, quality, etc.
(4) By describing the reasons for launching the project, connect the project with the daily business operations and strategic plans of the executing organization.
5. It is usually more appropriate to appoint the project manager in ( ).
A. Before the feasibility study process
B. Before signing the contract
C.Before bidding
D. Before starting to develop a project plan
Answer: D
Analysis: The project charter authorizes the project manager so that he can use organizational resources to execute the project. We should identify and appoint the project manager as early as possible in the project. The project manager is usually appointed before project planning begins, but it is better if he is appointed during the process of developing the project charter.
6. ( ) are not environmental and organizational factors that affect the process of developing a project charter.
A. Government or industry standards
B. Organizational infrastructure
C. Market conditions
D.contract
Answer: D
Analysis: When developing a project charter, some or all of the environmental and organizational factors involved in the project's success must be considered. These factors and systems include the following: (1) organizational or company culture and structure; (2) government or industry standards (such as regulations, product standards, quality standards, labor relations standards); (3) infrastructure, such as: Existing facilities and fixed assets; (4) Existing human resources, such as: skills, expertise (design, development, legal, contracts and procurement); (5) Human resource management, such as: recruitment and firing guidelines , employee performance evaluation and training records, etc.; (6) market conditions; (7) risk tolerance of project stakeholders; (8) commercial databases, such as industry risk research information and risk databases, cost budget data, etc.; (9) ) Project management information system, such as: an automated toolset, a scheduling tool integrated with a configuration management system.
7. ( ) work is used to define the project, and this work is used to clarify "what the project needs to do."
A. Develop a project scope statement
B. Develop a project management plan
C. Develop a project charter
D. Project management information system
Answer: A
Analysis: The project scope statement includes project scope and product scope.
8. Project risk identification refers to identifying the main risk factors that affect the smooth realization of project goals, and identifying the basic characteristics of these risks and what aspects of the project they may affect. Among the following statements about project risk identification, which one is correct ( ).
A. The project manager is mainly responsible for risk identification activities
B. Risk identification is a systematic activity, not a one-time behavior
C. Mainly identify the inherent risks of the project
D. Risk identification includes assessment of the possible impact of external factors on the project itself
Answer: B
Analysis: D is qualitative risk analysis.
9. The project statement of work is a description of the products, results or services that the project needs to provide. Its content generally does not include ( ).
A.Business requirements
B. Product range description
C.Project goals
D.Technical feasibility analysis
Answer: D
Analysis: Statement of Work Description:
·Business needs: An organization's business needs may be training, market demand, technological advancement, legal requirements or government standards, etc.
·Product Scope Description: Documents the requirements for the product to be created by the project, as well as the characteristics of the product or service. Usually, product requirements are not very detailed when the project is started, and will be gradually refined in the subsequent process as the product features become clear. These requirements also document the relationship between the product or service created by the project and business needs or other incentives. While product requirements documents vary in form and substance, they should be detailed enough to support subsequent project planning.
·Strategic planning: All projects must support the strategic goals of the organization, and the executing organization must consider strategic planning as an element in project selection. Excludes D.
10. In the modern project management process, the progress, cost, quality and scope of the project are generally regarded as the goals of project management, which reflects the ( ) characteristics of project management.
A.Multiple objectives
B. Hierarchy
C. Systematic
D.Priority
Answer: A
Analysis: Schedule, cost, quality and scope, as the goals of project management, reflect multi-objectives.
11. The project management process can be divided into five process groups: project initiation, project plan formulation, guidance and management of project execution, supervision and control of project work, and project closing. ( ) belongs to the guidance and management project execution process group.
A. Establish WBS and WBS dictionary
B. Activity sequencing
C. Project quality assurance
D.Control resources
Answer: C
Analysis: AB is the planning process group, C is the execution process group, and D is the control process group
12. After the project enters the execution stage, in order to complete the work defined in the project scope statement, the project manager and project team members still need to perform ( ).
①Implement approved preventive measures to reduce the possibility of potential negative outcomes.
②Manage project team members assigned to projects or phases
③Choose a life cycle model for the project
④Total investment in supervision projects
⑤Manage suppliers
A.①②⑤
B.①②③④
C.①②④⑤
D.①②③④⑤
Answer: A
Analysis: ①, ②, and ⑤ are the work done in the execution process group. ③ is the planning stage and ④ is monitoring.
13. Losses caused by schedule risks do not include ( ).
A. Time value of money
B. Losses caused by delayed investment
C. Cost overruns caused by inaccurate budgets
D. Third-party losses caused by progress delays
Answer: C
Analysis: C means the budget is inaccurate, it has nothing to do with the progress.
14. Since various constraints are unclear during the project planning stage, basic methodologies will be followed during the planning process to guide the formulation of the project plan. ( ) is part of the project management methodology.
A. Standard format and template for plans
B. Project related authorization
C. Skills of project stakeholders
D. Preliminary Scope Statement
Answer: A
Analysis: A methodology is a system or system that aims to solve problems. It usually involves the discussion of problem stages, tasks, tools, methods and techniques. The methodology will analyze and study a series of specific methods, systematically summarize them, and finally propose more general principles. From the four answers, A is the most consistent. Standard formats and templates are tool templates to guide plan development. Authorization and skills are obviously not the methodology, the preliminary scope statement is the output.
15. The content of the project scope statement (preliminary) does not include ( ).
A. Project and scope goals
B. Requirements and characteristics of products or services
C. Project requirements and deliverables
D. Project plan network diagram
Answer: D
Analysis: The project scope statement does not include the final drawing of the D project plan.
16. When ( ), the change approval must be formally passed.
Project management plan adjustments in version A.0.7
B. Progress adjustment of an activity within the free time difference
C. The person in charge of an activity requires that the progress be advanced
D. The project manager arranges a temporary overtime work
Answer: C
Analysis: The prerequisite for change approval is a major event, which generally means that changing the baseline requires change approval. The 0.7 version of the project management plan is still in draft, no baseline has been formed, and no change approval is required: Progress adjustments within the free time difference do not affect the entire critical path, and the progress baseline is not changed. , no adjustment is required: temporary overtime does not involve changes to the baseline, and does not require change approval: if the schedule is advanced, it is a change in the schedule baseline and requires change approval.
17. The testers of the project team discovered a major defect during the software system testing and reported it to the project manager. The project manager should next ( ).
A. Submit a change request
B. Discuss with the quality assurance personnel how to modify
C. Assign tasks to developer Xiao Wang for modification
D. Evaluate whether modification is needed
Answer: A
Analysis: Generally, the application is submitted first. Assessment comes later.
18. The figure below is a "decision tree diagram" for selecting a travel route. It counts the time taken by traffic jams and non-traffic jams on Route 1 and Route 2 and the probability of their occurrence (P), and calculates the weighted average time taken by Route 1 and Route 2. Choose the travel route according to the calculation results. Among the following conclusions, the correct one is ( ).
A. The weighted average time of route 1 is 40.5 minutes, and the weighted average time of route 2 is 48 minutes, so route 1 is selected.
B. The weighted average time of route 1 is 62.5 minutes, and the weighted average time of route 2 is 40 minutes, so route 2 is selected.
C. The weighted average time of route 1 is 40.5 minutes, and the weighted average time of route 2 is 44 minutes, so route 1 is selected.
D. Since the traffic jam and non-traffic jam time of Route 2 are shorter than Route 1, Route 2 is chosen.
Answer: A
Analysis: Route 1=35*0.9+90*0.1=40.5; Route 2=20*0.3+60*0.7=48, so choose Route 1.
19. At the end of the project, hold a project summary meeting to summarize the successes and areas for improvement in project implementation. Belongs to project management ( ).
A.Contract closing
B.Management closing
C. End of meeting
D. Organizational process asset closure
Answer: B
Analysis: Management closure procedures cover the entire project, and closure is required for phase completion and project completion (including project evaluation, summarizing experiences and lessons learned, archiving project documents, etc.). The executive management closing process also involves collecting project or phase records, analyzing project success or failure, collecting lessons learned from each project phase, and archiving project and phase information to provide reference for future projects.
20. The following figure is a change control management flow chart. The flow chart is missing ( ).
A. Assessment Impact Records
B. Configuration audit
C. Change definition
D. Record the implementation status of changes
Answer: D
Analysis: Figure 6-6. The main thing in this figure is that the record of change implementation is missing. Figure 6-6 After approval, it is: execute the change - record the change implementation one by one and distribute new documents one by one. Change implementation status should be documented when changes are implemented.
21. A project consists of five activities ABCDE. The most likely time (Tm), most optimistic time (To), and most pessimistic time (Tp) required to complete each activity is shown in the table below. The dependencies between each activity are as follows : Then the estimated duration of the project is approximately ( ) days.
A.22
B.23
C.24
D.25
Answer: C
Analysis: Three-point estimation method: Activity duration mean (or estimated value) = (optimistic estimate + 4 * most likely estimate + pessimistic estimate) / 6. Standard deviation of activity duration = (pessimistic estimate - optimistic estimate)/6.
First find the duration of each activity, and then find the critical path. The critical path is: 1-3-5-6. Find BDE, the sum of the most likely times of the three activities, B is (5*4+2+10)/6, D is (7*4+3+15) /6, E is (10*4+6+20)/6. The sum of 3 is equal to 24.
22. It is known that a certain system consists of six activities ABCDEF. The project intern drew the network diagram of the system based on the logical relationship and duration of the activities, and gave the system a construction period of 9 weeks. Other members of the project team have proposed Opinion, among the following opinions, ( ) is correct.
A. The logical relationship is wrong, the project duration should be 7 weeks
B. There is a cycle of asking for directions, and the project duration is correct
C. The node serial number is incorrectly arranged and the project duration is correct.
D. The project duration is 8 weeks
Answer: D
Analysis: Each answer has a construction period. When doing the questions, you can first calculate the construction period.
The path and construction period are as follows:
A-C=2 weeks+4 weeks=6 weeks;
A-D=2 weeks+6 weeks=8 weeks;
A-E=2 weeks+5 weeks=7 weeks;
A-F=2 weeks+1 week=3 weeks;
B-E=3 weeks+5 weeks=8 weeks;
B-F=3 weeks + 1 week = 4 weeks.
Therefore, the construction period is 8 weeks, and answer D is correct.
23. The output of risk monitoring does not include ( )
A. Recommended corrective actions
B. Newly discovered risks
C. New risk management knowledge
D.Approved Change Request
Answer: D
Analysis: A. The recommended corrective measures are the original words in the book; B. The newly discovered risks belong to the "Risk Records (Update)" in the output. C. The new risk management knowledge belongs to the "Organizational Process Assets (Update). D" is incorrect. Risk monitoring may output a change request, but not an approved change request. An approved change request is the output of the change request after the overall change control process.
24. A project consists of three parallel modules A, B and C. Activity A requires 3 people and 5 days to complete, activity B requires 6 people and 7 days to complete, and activity C requires 4 people and 2 days to complete. In order to ensure If the project is completed in the shortest time, at least (35) people should be allocated to the project.
A.6
B.9
C.10
D.13
Answer: C
Analysis: Drawing a time scale network diagram will be intuitive and clear. Because they are all in parallel, C can be moved to the back of activity A instead of running in parallel with activities A and B at the same time. This can be completed within 7 days and the number of people is configured to 10 people.
25. When creating a work breakdown structure, the decomposition level table describing the actual parts and components required to produce a product is called ( ).
A. Risk breakdown structure
B. Bill of Materials
C. Organizational breakdown structure
D. Resource breakdown structure
Answer: B
Analysis: A bill of materials (BOM) describes a hierarchical table of actual parts, components and components required to produce a product.
1. In the following description about project scope management, ( ) is incorrect.
A. The standard for setting general project goals can be expressed in one word SMART
B. Project objectives initially appear in the preliminary project scope statement, are later defined, and are ultimately summarized in the project scope statement.
C. The scope definition process gives a detailed description of the project and product, and writes the results into a detailed project scope statement
D. Scope confirmation is also called scope verification. Its purpose is to verify whether the work results are correct or not, and it should run throughout the project.
Answer: D
Analysis: Project scope confirmation should run through the entire project. Scope confirmation is different from quality control. Scope confirmation is about the acceptance of work results, while quality control is about whether the work results are correct. Quality control is generally completed before scope confirmation, but of course it can also be done in parallel.
The goals of the project require compliance with the SMART principle, that is, the goals of the project require Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound.
2. Project progress control is to monitor the actual progress of the project based on the project progress baseline plan so that the project can be completed on time. ( ) is incorrect in the following description of project progress control.
A. Project progress is crucial, so progress control needs to be given priority in the early stages of the project.
B. Progress control must be closely integrated with other change controls, including cost control and scope control
C. Project progress control is an integral part of the overall project control
D. To control project progress, focus should be placed on project progress reports and execution status reports
Answer: A
Analysis: Progress control should be carried out throughout the project, and implementation should be monitored.
3. Project management of large and complex projects is different from single project management. For the management of large and complex projects, the first plan to be formulated is ( ).
A schedule
B. Cost planning
C.Quality plan
D.Process planning
Answer: D
Analysis: Advanced Textbook Second Edition P414, P415. The process planning system includes the formulation process, execution process and supervision process, but does not include the tailoring process.
4. A project consists of three parallel modules A, B and C. Activity A requires 3 people and 5 days to complete, activity B requires 6 people and 7 days to complete, and activity C requires 4 people and 2 days to complete. Assuming that the probabilities of activities A, B and C being completed on time are 80%, 70% and 100% respectively, then the probability of the project being completed on time is ().
A.50%
B.56%
C.64%
D.90%
Answer: B
Analysis: Drawing a time scale network diagram will be intuitive and clear. Because they are all in parallel, C can be moved to the back of activity A instead of running in parallel with activities A and B at the same time. This can be completed within 7 days and the number of people is configured to 10 people. The probability of the project being completed on time = 80%*70%*100%=56%.
5. The picture below is an arrow diagram of a certain project (time unit: week), and its critical path is ( ).
A.1-4-6-8-10-11
B.1-3-9-11
C.1-4-9-11
D.1-2-5-7-11
Answer: C
Analysis: It is easiest to use the substitution method. Look at the first question first and see which option among the four answers has the longest path. The longest is the critical path:
A.1-4-6-8-10-11=3+2+2+3+3=13
B.1-3-9-11=2+4+5=11C.1-4-9-11=3+6+5=14
D.1-2-5-7-11=3+4+2+1=10
1. The total duration of the project shown in the figure below (unit: weeks) is ( ) weeks. During the implementation of the project, activities D-I were delayed by 2 weeks than planned, the actual construction period of activities A-C was 6 weeks, and activities F-H were advanced by 1 week than planned. At this time, the total duration of the project is ( ) weeks.
A.14
B.18
C.16
D.17
Answer: C
Analysis: Just substitute the question conditions into the above path:
a-b-e-g-k=3+4+2+1=10；
a-c-i-k=2+4+5=11+4=15 (the actual duration of activity AC is 6 weeks, 2 becomes 6, adding 4 weeks);
a-d-i-k=3+6+5=14+2=16 (event D-I was delayed by 2 weeks than planned);
a-d-f-h-j-k=3+4+3+5+1=16-1=15 (event F-H is 1 week ahead of schedule);
The construction period is still 16 weeks, but the critical path has changed, from a-d-f-h-j-k to a-d-i-k.
2. A project contains seven activities A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. The duration estimate of each activity and the logical relationship between the activities are as shown in the table below. The project duration is ( ) days.
A.13
B.14
C.15
D.16
Answer: C
Analysis: Examination of calculation questions - critical path. P278.
Draw a single code number, and then list the paths to see which one is the critical path, and then the total floating time = critical path duration - C is the longest path duration where the activity is located. The calculation is as follows:
ABED=13; ACFG=14; ADFG=15, so the construction period is 15. The total float time of C=15-14=1.
3. The project manager produced the following double-code network diagram (unit: days) for a government website renovation project. The total construction period of the project is ( ) days.
A.40
B.37
C.34
D.32
Answer: B
Analysis: Calculate the time of each path, and the answer will come out:
S-1-4-5-8-9-E：4+7+6+8+1+3=29；
S-1-4-5-8-10-E：4+7+6+8+4+3=32；
S-2-7-5-8-9-E：3+14+2+8+1+3=31；
S-2-7-5-8-10-E：3+14+2+8+4+3=34；
S-3-6-7-5-8-9-E：6+9+5+2+8+1+3=34；
S-3-6-7-5-8-10-E：6+9+5+2+8+4+3=37。
4. A project contains seven activities A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. The duration estimate and logical relationship of each activity are as shown in the table below. The project duration is ( ) days.
A.14
B.15
C.16
D.17
Answer: D
Analysis: ABEG=2+4+4+3=13; ACEG2+5+4+3=14; ADFG=2+6+6+3=17. Total float for activity C=17-14=3.
5. ( ) is not a quality management principle proposed by the current ISO 9000 series of standards.
A. Product-centric
B.Leadership
C.Fact-based decision-making method
D. Mutually beneficial relationship with suppliers
Answer: A
Analysis: IS0 9000 quality management 8 basic principles: customer-centered, leadership role and full participation, process approach, systematic approach to management, continuous improvement, fact-based decision-making method, and mutually beneficial relationship with suppliers.
1. A company won the bid for an enterprise information system development project. The project in the contract included: personnel system, OA system and production system. The picture below shows the WBS produced by the project manager. Here the project manager violated the ( ) principle about WBS.
A.WBS needs to consider separating the work of different personnel
B. Each work in WBS serves to provide deliverables
C. WBS can be decomposed layer by layer according to system subsystems
D. A work unit can only belong to an upper-level unit
Answer: D
Analysis: Employee training belongs to both the OA system and the personnel system, which violates the principle of subordinate and exclusive work unit.
2. Regarding the description of WBS, the incorrect one is ( ).
A.WBS must and can only include 100% of the work
B.Elements of the WBS must designate one or more responsible persons
C.WBS should be unanimously confirmed by all project members, users and project stakeholders
D. Subcontracted work should also be included in the WBS
Answer: B
Analysis: Advanced Third Edition Textbook P242:
During the decomposition process, the following 8 aspects should be noted: (4) Someone must be responsible for the elements in the WBS, and only one person is responsible, although in fact multiple people may be required to participate. This provision is also known as the principle of independent responsibility. B is wrong. The principle of independent responsibility is the same in the RACI matrix.
3. The project manager produced the following double-coded network diagram (unit: day) for a government website renovation project. During the project implementation, activities 2-7 were 2 days ahead of schedule, and the actual construction period of activities 8-10 was 3 days. , the construction period of activities 6-7 has been increased by 3 days, determine the impact on the total project period ( ).
A. No impact
B. Added 2 days
C. Added 3 days
D. Added 4 days
Answer: B
Analysis: Activities 2-7 are 2 days ahead of schedule, the actual duration of activities 8-10 is 3 days, and the duration of activities 6-7 has been increased by 3 days. The impact on each path is as follows:
S-1-4-5-8-9-E：4+7+6+8+1+3=29；
S-1-4-5-8-10-E：4+7+6+8+4+3=32-1=31；
S-2-7-5-8-9-E：3+14+2+8+1+3=31-2=29；
S-2-7-5-8-10-E：3+14+2+8+4+3=34-2-1=31；
S-3-6-7-5-8-9-E：6+9+5+2+8+1+3=34+3=37；
S-3-6-7-5-8-10-E: 6+9+5+2+8+4+3=37-1+3=39. Two days were added.
4. Regarding the description of the work breakdown structure (WBS), the correct one is ( ).
A.WBS must comply with the project scope
B. WBS elements must be responsible for more than one person
C.WBS. Must be controlled at 5-8 layers
D. The preparation of WBS only requires the participation of project team members
Answer: A
Analysis: Multiple people can participate in WBS elements, but someone must be responsible, and only one person can be responsible. This is the only point of responsibility. B is wrong. WBS should be controlled at 4-6 layers, C error. The preparation of the WBS requires the participation of all major stakeholders. Error D.
5. Among quality management related tools, ( ) is used to understand the relationship between a goal and the steps to achieve this goal.
A. Tree diagram
B. Process decision-making program chart
C. Priority matrix
D. Affinity diagram
Answer: B
Analysis: Process Decision Program Chart (PDPC) is used to understand the relationship between a goal and the steps to achieve this goal.
1. ( ) Work that does not fall under scope change control.
A. Determine the factors that lead to scope changes and try to make these factors develop in a favorable direction
B. Determine whether scope change has occurred
C. Manage scope changes to ensure that all requested changes are processed in accordance with the overall change control process of the project
D. Determine the formally accepted criteria and elements of the scope
Answer: D
Analysis: Advanced Textbook Third Edition P246:
Work of scope change control: During the entire project cycle, if the project scope changes, scope change control must be carried out. The main work of scope change control is as follows. (1) Influence the factors that lead to scope changes and try to make these factors develop in a favorable direction. (2) Determine whether the scope change has occurred. (3) Manage the actual changes when scope changes occur and ensure that all requested changes are processed in accordance with the overall change control process of the project.
2. ( ) Activities within the scope of control.
A. Discuss the project scope statement carefully with the customer and ask the customer to sign
B. When customers put forward new needs, persuade users to give up the new needs.
C. Confirm whether the project scope covers all activities required to complete the product or service
D. Confirm whether each job has clear quality standards
Answer: B
Analysis: A is the content of the definition range. C and D are the contents of the confirmation scope. Please refer to points 3 and 5 in the questions to be checked in P244-5.6.1-2, third edition of the advanced textbook.
Only B is an activity that controls the scope. If some demands made by customers are unreasonable, they may have to be persuaded to give up. In fact, it is the work of scope change control (influencing factors that lead to scope changes).
3. Regarding the description of demand management, the correct one is ( ).
A. Requirements management includes all activities to maintain the consistency and accuracy of requirements during the product life cycle
B. The process of tracing from the description of test cases and test reports to the original user needs is forward tracing.
C. Tracking between requirements documents is used to check for possible errors or omissions in the requirements decomposition.
D. The requirements tracking matrix does not need to reflect the tracking results of test strategies and test scenarios.
Answer: C
Analysis: Option A: 5.3.4: Requirements management includes all activities that maintain the consistency and accuracy of requirements during the product development process. It's not the product life cycle, A is wrong. Answer B: It belongs to reverse tracking, which is the opposite. Answer C: Advanced Textbook Third Edition P233, the fifth type of contact chain is the tracking between requirement documents. This tracking facilitates better processing of the logical correlation between various requirements, and checks possible errors or errors in the requirement decomposition. Omission. C is correct. Answer D: Advanced Textbook Third Edition P233: The content that needs to be tracked includes the following aspects: 1. Business needs, opportunities, goals and objectives. 2. Project goals. 3. Project scope (WBS deliverables). 4. Product design 5. Product development. 6. Test strategies and test scenarios. D is wrong.
4. Regarding the description of scope control, the correct one is ( ).
A. Controlling progress is an effective way to control scope
B. Changes in the project execution organization itself will not cause scope changes
C. Scope change control must be integrated with other control processes
D. Changes in government policies cannot be the reason for scope changes
Answer: C
Analysis: See advanced textbooks. Scope change control must be considered together with other control processes. For example, scope changes may also affect cost, schedule, etc. So C is correct. Changes in scope can easily affect progress, but the reverse is not obvious, so A is inappropriate. Both organizational changes and policy changes may reference scope changes, and neither B nor D are correct.
5. ( ) Supervise and record the results of quality activities in order to evaluate performance and recommend necessary changes.
A.Quality planning
B.Quality Assurance
C.Quality control
D.Quality improvement
Answer: C
Analysis: Quality management process: planning quality management, implementing quality assurance, quality control; (1) Planning quality management: identifying quality standards related to the project and determining how to meet these standards, determining which processes and work products need to be quality managed ;
(2) Quality assurance: All activities established in a planned and systematic manner to ensure that the project can meet relevant quality standards are mainly to ensure process quality;
(3) Control quality: Take measures to supervise whether the specific implementation results of the project meet the relevant project quality standards, and determine and eliminate the causes of adverse product results; quality assurance focuses on the process, while quality control focuses on the results.
1. The basic model of communication is used to show how information is sent and received between two parties. Misunderstandings that occur in daily interactions with people usually occur in the ( ) link.
A.Encoding
B.Decoding
C.Media
D.Information
Answer: B
Analysis: Decoding is the reduction of information into meaningful thoughts or ideas. In communication, misunderstandings may easily occur during the decoding process due to the influence of noise.
2. From the perspective of participants, ( ) communication method has the highest degree of participation.
A.Narration
B.Promotion
C.Consultation
D.discuss
Answer: D
Analysis: During the communication process, appropriate communication methods should be selected based on the communication goals and the characteristics of the participants. The methods used in the general communication process are divided into the following categories: participation in discussion methods, consultation methods, sales methods (explanations), and narrative methods. From the perspective of the participants (the party sending the information), among the above four types of communication methods, the discussion method has the weakest control, and then gradually strengthens, and the narrative method has the strongest control. From the perspective of the participant (the party sending the information), the level of participation of other participants is exactly the opposite, that is, the level of participation is the highest in the discussion mode, and then gradually weakens, and the level of participation is the weakest in the narrative mode.
3. A company decided to develop a new mobile APP based on the existing official document processing system to facilitate remote working. The project manager held a working meeting and made the following suggestions regarding the work breakdown structure, of which ( ) is inappropriate.
A. All members of the project team must participate, and the level of task decomposition is controlled between 4 and 6 levels
B. Modules whose specific activities are not yet clear can be decomposed using planning packages
C. Project stakeholders confirm the completed WBS and reach a consensus
D. The project manager is responsible for the decomposition of the project WBS, and the outsourcer is responsible for the decomposition of the outsourcing contract WBS.
Answer: D
Analysis: Refer to the third edition of Advanced Textbook P241: WBS is not the responsibility of a certain project team member and should be completed and unanimously confirmed by all project team members, users and project stakeholders. Rather than just the project manager being responsible for decomposition, D is inappropriate.
4. A total of 9 people attended the communication and coordination meeting of a certain project. There are ( ) communication channels for this meeting.
A.42
B.28
C.45
D.36
Answer: D
Analysis: See advanced textbook, 9(9-1)/2=36.
5. From the perspective of information release, the most controlling communication method is ( ).
A. Discussion
B.Narration
C.Consultation
D.Explanation
Answer: B
Analysis: Classification of communication methods: ① participation in discussion; ② consultation; ③ sales promotion (explanation); ④ narrative. The degree of control goes from weak to strong. Participation in discussions was high.
1. You are organizing a project communication and coordination meeting. There are 12 people participating in the meeting, and there are ( ) communication channels.
A.66
B.72
C.96
D.132
Answer: A
Analysis: Potential communication channels, 12*(12-1)/2=66.
2. During the project communication process, various communication methods will be used. Email communication belongs to ( ).
A.Real-time communication
B. Push communication
C. Pull communication
D. Situational communication
Answer: B
Analysis:, communication method:
Interactive communication. Multi-directional exchange of information between two or more parties. This is to ensure that all participants agree on a specific topic
The most effective methods for consensus include meetings, phone calls, instant messaging, video conferencing, etc. Push communication. Send information to specific recipients who need to receive the information. This approach ensures that the message is sent but does not ensure that the message reaches the audience or is understood by the target audience. Push communications include letters, memos, reports, emails, faxes, voicemails, logs, press releases, etc.
Pull communication. Used when there is a large amount of information or a large audience. Recipients are required to access information content on their own initiative. This method includes corporate intranets, electronic online courses, lessons learned databases, knowledge bases, etc.
3. ( ) is a commonly used tool and technique for control range.
A. Guided seminar
B. Product analysis
C. Deviation analysis
D. Benchmark comparison
Answer: C
Analysis: C Deviation analysis is a commonly used tool and technique for control range. Facilitated workshops can be used in the process of gathering requirements and defining scope, product analysis can be used in the process of defining scope, and benchmarking can be used in gathering requirements and planning quality management processes.
4. For situations where there is a large amount of information or a large audience, it is recommended to use the ( ) communication method.
A. Pull type
B.Push type
C.Interactive
D. Face to face
Answer: A
Analysis: communication method:
①Interactive communication. Multi-directional exchange of information between two or more parties. This is the most effective way to ensure consensus on a specific topic among all participants, including meetings, phone calls, instant messaging, video conferencing, etc. ②Push communication. Send information to specific recipients who need to receive the information. This method ensures that the message is sent, but it does not ensure that the message reaches the audience or is understood by the target audience. Includes letters, memos, reports, emails, faxes, voicemails, logs, press releases, etc. ③Pull communication. Used when there is a large amount of information or a large audience. Recipients are required to access information content on their own initiative. Including corporate intranet, electronic online courses, experience and lessons database, knowledge base, etc.
5. Memos, reports, diaries, press releases and other communication methods belong to ( ).
A. Push communication
B.Interactive communication
C. Pull communication
D.Informal communication
Answer: A
Analysis: Communication methods can be roughly divided into: (1) Interactive communication. Multi-directional exchange of information between two or more parties. This is the most effective method of ensuring consensus among all participants on a specific topic, including meetings, phone calls, instant messaging, video conferencing, etc. (2) Push communication. Send information to specific recipients who need to receive the information. This method ensures that the message is sent, but it does not ensure that the message reaches the audience or is understood by the target audience. Push communications include letters, memos, reports, emails, faxes, voicemails, logs, press releases, etc. (3) Pull communication. Used when there is a large amount of information or a large audience. Methods that require recipients to access information on their own include corporate intranets, electronic online courses, lessons learned databases, knowledge bases, etc.