[Soft Examination System Architecture Designer] 2022 Comprehensive Knowledge Over the Years Real Questions

[Soft Examination System Architecture Designer] 2022 Comprehensive Knowledge Over the Years Real Questions

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 01: Green]
01. The cloud computing service architecture is shown in the figure below. In the figure ①, ②, ③ correspond to SaaS, PaaS, and Iaas respectively. In the figure ①, ②, ③ should be ( )

A. Application layer, infrastructure layer, platform layer
B. Application layer, platform layer, infrastructure layer
C. Flat layer, application layer, infrastructure layer 　　
D. Platform layer, infrastructure layer, application layer

Answer: Answer choice B. Send sub-questions.
Cloud computing includes three basic types.
1) Software as a Service
Software as a Service (Software-as-a-Service, SaaS) is a software application model that provides software services based on the Internet. As an innovative software application model that began to emerge in the 21st century, SaaS is the latest trend in the development of software technology. The SaaS provider builds all the network infrastructure, software and hardware operation platforms required for the enterprise's informatization, and is responsible for a series of services such as all early implementation and later maintenance. Enterprises do not need to purchase software and hardware, build computer rooms, and recruit IT personnel. The information system can be used through the Internet. Just like water can be turned on by turning on the tap, enterprises rent software services from SaaS providers according to actual needs.
2) Platform as a Service
Platform as a Service (Platform-as-a-Service, PaaS) is a business model that provides a server platform or a development environment as a service, such as a software development platform as a service, and a SaaS model submitted to the user. Therefore, PaaS is also an application of the SaaS model. However, the emergence of PaaS can accelerate the development of SaaS, especially the development of SaaS applications.
3) Infrastructure as a Service
Infrastructure as a Service (Infrastructure as a Service, IaaS) means that consumers can obtain services from a complete computer infrastructure through the Internet. For example, the New York Times uses hundreds of Amazon EC2 instances in 36 Process terabytes of document data within hours. Without EC2, it would have taken days or months for The New York Times to process the data.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 02: Green]
02. Precedence Graph is a directed acyclic graph, recorded as: →={(Pi, Pi)} {Pi must complete before Pj may start}, Suppose the process P={P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6, P7, P8} in the system, and the predecessor graph of the process is shown in the figure below, then the predecessor graph can be recorded as ( ).

A→={P1,P2),(P1,P3),(P1,P4),(P2,P5),(P3,P5),(P4,P7),(P5,P6),(P5,P7) ,(P7,P6),(P4,P5),(P6,P7),(P7, P8)}
B.→={P1,P2),(P1,P3),(P1,P4),(P2, P3),(P2,P5),(P3,P4),(P3,P6),(P4,P7),(P5,P6),(P5,P8),(P6,P7),(P7,P8) }
C.→={(P1,P2),(P1,P3),(P1,P4),(P2,P3),(P2,P5),(P3,P4),(P3,P5),(P4 ,P6),(P5,P7),(P5,P8),(P6,P7),(P7,P8)} D.→={P1,
P2),(P1,P3),(P2,P3), (P2,P5),(P3,P4),(P3,P6);(P4,P7),(P5,P6),(P5,P8),(P6,P7),(P6,P8),(P7 ,P8)}

Answer: Answer choice B. Send sub-questions. Examine predecessor graphs in operating systems.
In the predecessor diagram, the arrow represents the predecessor relationship, and the node represents the process. In this figure, P1 is the starting point, and P8 is the end point. There are 12 predecessor relationships in total. Each predecessor relationship can be expressed in the form of (node ​​1, node 2), for example, the predecessor relationship between P1 and P2 can be expressed as (P1, P2). The logic of this question is very simple, as long as each arrow line in the picture is expressed in the agreed form according to the requirements of the question. Predecessor relationships such as (P2,P3) and (P3,P4) are missing in option A, P3,P5) in option C is wrong, and (P1,P4) is missing in option D, so the answer is option B.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 03: Green]
03. If the system loses power when the system is writing the results of ( ) file modifications back to the disk, the impact on the system will be relatively large. A. Directories　　
B. Free blocks　　
C. User programs　　
D. User data

Answer: Answer choice A. Inspected computer composition principles and disk management in architecture.
When the file is in the "unopened" state, the file needs to occupy three resources: a directory entry; a disk inode entry; several disk blocks. When a file is referenced or "opened", three more resources must be added: a memory inode entry, which resides in memory; an entry in the file table; and an entry in the user file descriptor table. Since the reading and writing management of files must involve the above-mentioned various resources, the reading and writing management of files depends to a large extent on the management of these resources, so the file system can be introduced from the perspective of resource management. In this way,
the management of files must include:
①Management of index nodes;
②Management of free disk blocks;
③Management of directory files;
④Management of file tables and descriptor tables;
⑤Use of files.
Therefore, if an exception occurs when the directory file is written back to the disk, it will have a great impact on the system. The free blocks, user data and programs do not affect the work of the system, so there will be no major impact.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 04: Green]
04. In the disk scheduling management, arm shift scheduling should be performed first, and then rotation scheduling should be performed. Assuming that the disk moving arm is located on cylinder 20, the request sequence of the process is shown in the table below. If the shortest arm movement scheduling algorithm is used, then the scheduling sequence of the system should be ( ).

A.②⑧③④⑤①⑦⑥⑨⑨ B.②③⑧④⑥⑨①⑤⑦
C.④⑥⑨⑤⑦①②⑧③　
D.④⑥⑨⑤⑦①②③⑧

Answer: Answer choice C. Examines disk management in computer composition and architecture.
Shortest seek time first SSTF.
Prioritize the process that accesses the track with the closest distance to the track where the current head is located, so that the seek time is the shortest each time.
Problem: May cause some processes to "starve". Because as long as there are new processes that keep the distance between the track to be accessed and the track where the head is currently located, the "old process starvation" phenomenon will appear. This scheduling algorithm cannot guarantee the shortest average seek time.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 05: Green]
05. In a database system with a three-level schema structure, if a clustered index is created for a table, then the ( ) of the database is changed.
A. External mode　　
B. Mode　　
C. Internal mode　　
D. User mode

Answer: Answer choice C.
A clustered index is not a separate index type, but a data storage method. A clustered index is to construct a B+ tree according to the primary key of each table. At the same time, the leaf nodes store the row record data of the entire table, and the leaf nodes of the clustered index are also called data pages. This feature determines that the data in the index-organized table is also part of the index, and each table can only have one clustered index

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 06: Green]
06. Assuming that there are running transactions in the system, if you want to dump all the databases, you should use the ( ) method.
A. Static global dump　　
B. Dynamic incremental dump　　
C. Static incremental dump　　
D. Dynamic global dump

Answer: Answer choice D. Investigate data backup and recovery in the database.
Data dumps are divided into static dumps and dynamic dumps, mass dumps and incremental dumps.
① Static dump and dynamic dump.
Static dump means that no access and modification operations are allowed on the database during the dump period;
dynamic dump means that access and modification operations are allowed on the database during the dump period, so the dump and user transactions can be executed concurrently.
②Mass dump and incremental dump.
Mass dump refers to dumping all data each time; incremental dump refers to dumping only the updated data after the last dump each time. To sum up, assuming that there are running transactions in the system, if you want to dump all databases, you should use the dynamic global dump method.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 07: Green]
07. Given a relational schema R ( U , F ), where U is an attribute set and F is a set of functional dependencies on U, then the axiom system of functional dependencies (Armstrong axiom system ) means that ( ) is implied by F A.
If x → Y , Y → Z , then X -→ Y
B. If Y<X<U. Then X → Y
C. If X → Y , Z<Y , then x → Z
D. If x → Y , Y → Z , then X -→ YZ

Answer: Answer choice C. The theory of normalization in database systems is examined.
From some known functional dependencies, other functional dependencies can be deduced, which requires a series of inference rules. Inference rules for functional dependencies first appeared in a 1974 paper by W . W . Armstrong, and these rules are often referred to as "Armstrong's axioms".
For the relation pattern R < U , F ＞, there are the following inference rules:
Reflexivity: If Y<X<U, then X→Y is established.
Augmentation: If Z<U and X→Y, then XZ→YZ is established.
Transitivity (Transitivity): If X→Y and Y→Z, then X→Z holds.
According to the three inference rules A1, A2, A3, the following three inference rules can be obtained:
Merging rules: from X→Y, X→Z, and X→YZ.
Pseudo-transitive rules: from X →→ Y , WY →→ Z , there is XW -→ Z .
Decomposition rules: from X→Y and Z<Y, there is X →→ Z.
In summary, it can be concluded that option C is the decomposition rule.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 08: Green]
08. Given the relationship R ( A , B , C , D ) and S ( A , C , E , F ) with

Answer: Answer choice B. Examines relational algebra in database systems.
This question seeks the equivalent expression of the Cartesian product of the natural connection. First, the Cartesian product needs to select tuples with the same name attribute columns and equal values. In this question A and C are the same attribute names, so it needs to satisfy R . A = S . A and R . C = S . C , converted to digital serial number: 1=5A3=6. But for the selection condition R . B > S . E , the sequence number converted to numbers is 2>7.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 09: Red]
09. Among the following statements about Hongmeng OS, which one is incorrect is (9),
A. The overall architecture of Hongmeng OS adopts a hierarchical design, from bottom to top: : Kernel layer, system service layer, framework layer and application layer
B. The kernel layer of Hongmeng operating system adopts macro kernel design, which has stronger security features and low latency.
C. The architecture of Hongmeng operating system adopts the distributed design concept to realize Four distributed capabilities, including distributed soft bus, virtualization of distributed design system, distributed data management and distributed task scheduling, etc. D. The
system security of the architecture is mainly reflected in the distributed terminals equipped with Harmony OS, which can ensure "The right people, the right devices, the right data"

Answer: Answer choice B. The Hongmeng operating system uses a microkernel. Therefore, the inspection is the knowledge point of the operating system.
The HarmonyOS system architecture generally follows a layered design, which is divided into the kernel layer, system service layer, framework layer, and application layer from bottom to top. HarmonyOS system functions are gradually expanded according to "system->subsystem->function/module". In the multi-device deployment scenario, it supports cutting or adding subsystems or functions/modules according to actual needs.
1) Kernel layer
HarmonyOS is divided into a kernel subsystem and a driver subsystem. In the kernel subsystem, Hongmeng system adopts multi-core design, which supports the selection of appropriate OS kernels for different resource-constrained devices; the Hongmeng system driver framework is the basis for the hardware ecological opening of Hongmeng system, which provides unified peripheral access capabilities and driver development and management frame.
2) System service layer
The system service layer is the core capability geometry of the Hongmeng system, providing services to applications through the framework layer. It includes four parts: system basic capability subsystem set, basic software service subsystem set, enhanced software service subsystem set, and hardware service subsystem.
3) Framework layer
The framework layer provides Java / C / C ++ / JS and other multilingual user program frameworks and Ability frameworks for Hongmeng system applications, as well as multilingual framework APIs open to the outside world for various software and hardware services. The electronic equipment provides C/C++/JS and other multi-language framework APIs.
4) Application layer
The application layer includes system applications and third-party non-system applications, and the Hongmeng system application consists of one or more FA or PA.
System security: Classes on distributed terminals equipped with Hongmeng system ensure that the correct people use the correct electronic equipment to use the data correctly. Ensure "correct person" through distributed multi-segment collaborative identity authentication. Ensure "correct electronic equipment" by building a trusted operating environment on distributed terminals. Ensure that "correct electronic equipment" is guaranteed by classifying and grading management of data during the flow of distributed data across terminals. "Using data correctly".

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 10: Yellow]
10. GPU has been widely used in all walks of life. GPU integrates tens of thousands of cores running at GHz frequency at the same time. The peak performance of the latest GPU can be as high as ( ).
A.100TFlops
B.50TFlops
C.10TFlops
D.1TFlops

Answer: Answer choice A. Mongolia right. This question examines embedded hardware knowledge.
The 16-bit floating-point computing power of the BR100 general-purpose GPU reaches more than 1000T, the 8-bit fixed-point computing power reaches more than 2000T, the peak computing power of a single chip reaches the PFLOPS level, and the FP32 computing power surpasses Nvidia’s flagship GPU on sale by an order of magnitude. The answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 11: Red]
11. Al chips are the core technology of the current development of artificial intelligence technology, and their capabilities must support training and reasoning. Generally, the technical architecture of AI chips includes three types such as ( ).
A.GPU, FPGA, ASIC
B.CPU, PPGA, DSP
C.GPU, CPU, ASIC
D.GPU, FPGA, SOC

Answer: Answer choice A. Check embedded.
From the perspective of technical architecture development, Al chips can be divided into four types:
general-purpose chips, such as GPU and FPGA;
semi-customized chips based on FPGA, such as Shenjian Technology DPU, Baidu XPU, etc.;
fully customized ASIC Chips, such as TPU, Cambricon-1A, etc.;
brain-like computing chips, such as IBM TrueNorth, westwell, Qualcomm Zeroth, etc.
Al chips mainly have three technical architectures.
The first is GPU, which can efficiently support general-purpose chips for Al applications, but compared with FPGA and ASIC, the price and power consumption are too high; the second
is FPGA (Field Programmable Gate Array), which can program and configure the chip hardware layer, realize semi-customization, and have lower power consumption than GFGPU: the third
is ASIC (application-specific integrated circuit), which is specially designed for specific Al products or services , mainly focuses on accelerating machine learning (especially neural network and deep learning). It adopts hardware circuit implementation for specific computing network structure, and can achieve very high energy efficiency ratio at very low power consumption
. This is also the most common form of AI chips. The answer is option A.

[2022 architecture real question No. 12: red]
12. Generally, embedded middleware does not have a unified architectural style, and there can be multiple types according to different application objects. The more common ones are message middleware and distributed object middleware. In the following description about message middleware, the incorrect one is ( ).
A. Message middleware is a container for storing messages during message transmission.
B. Message middleware has two basic characteristics: it adopts asynchronous processing mode, and the relationship between application and application is loosely coupled.
C. Message middleware is mainly composed of A set of objects to provide system services, objects can communicate across platforms
D. The messaging service model of message middleware is divided into point-to-point model and publish-subscribe model

Answer: Answer choice C.
Distributed object middleware mainly provides system services by a group of objects, and the objects can communicate across platforms. This is not message middleware.
Message middleware is a container for storing information during message transmission. Messaging middleware then acts as a middleman in relaying a message from its source to its destination. The main purpose of the queue is to provide routing and ensure the delivery of messages; if the receiver is unavailable when sending a message, the message queue will keep the message until it can be successfully delivered. Of course, the message queue also has a deadline for saving messages.
Features of message middleware:
(1) Adopt asynchronous processing mode.
A message sender can send a message without waiting for a response. The message sender sends the message to a virtual channel (topic or queue), and the message receiver subscribes or listens to the channel. A message may eventually be forwarded to one or more message receivers, none of whom need to respond synchronously to the message sender. The whole process is asynchronous.
(2) The relationship between the application program and the application program is loosely coupled.
It is mainly reflected in the following two points: the sender and the receiver do not need to know each other, but only need to confirm the message; the sender and the receiver do not need to be online at the same time. For example, in order to ensure the final consistency of data, the online transaction system will put the payment result in the message middleware after the payment system is processed to notify the order system to modify the order payment status. The two systems are decoupled through message middleware.
Transmission mode of message middleware:
(1) Point-to-point model
The point-to-point model is used for point-to-point communication between message producers and message consumers. A message producer sends a message to a specific consumer identified by a name. This name actually refers to a queue ( Queue ) in the consumer service where the message is stored before it is delivered to the consumer. Queue messages can be in-memory or persistent to ensure that messages can still be delivered when the message service fails.
(2) Publish-subscribe model (Pub / Sub)
The publisher/subscriber model supports producing messages to a specific message topic.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 13: Green]
13. Among the following descriptions about HTTPS and HTTP protocols, the incorrect one is ( )
A. HTTPS protocol uses encrypted transmission
B. The default service port number of HTTPS protocol is 443
C. HTTP protocol The default service port is 80
D. Electronic payment websites should use HTTP protocol

Answer: Answer choice D. Send sub-questions. Protocols in computer networks are examined.
The data transmitted by the HTTP protocol is unencrypted, that is, in plain text, so it is very unsafe to use the HTTP protocol to transmit private information. In order to ensure that these private data can be encrypted and transmitted, the SSL protocol is used to encrypt the data transmitted by the HTTP protocol. And so HTTPS was born. To put it simply, the HTTPS protocol is a network protocol constructed by the SSL + HTTP protocol that can perform encrypted transmission and identity authentication, and is safer than the http protocol. The main differences between HTTPS and HTTP are as follows:
1. The https protocol needs to apply for a certificate from a ca. Generally, there are few free certificates, so a certain fee is required.
2. http is a hypertext transfer protocol, information is transmitted in plain text, and https is a secure ssl encrypted transfer protocol.
3. http and https use completely different connection methods and different ports. The former is 80 and the latter is 443.
4. The http connection is very simple and stateless; the HTTPS protocol is a network protocol constructed by the SSL + HTTP protocol that can perform encrypted transmission and identity authentication. It is safer than the http protocol. In summary, the statement of option D is wrong, and the electronic payment
website The HTTPS protocol should be used.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti No. 14: Green] .
14. The email client sends emails by initiating a TCP connection to ( ) port of ( ) server.
A.POP3
B.SMTP
C.HTTP
D.IMAP
>
A.23
B.25
C.110
D.143

Answer: The answer is B|B.
Question 1: POP3: port 110, mail receiving
SMTP: port 25, mail sending
HTTP: port 80, hypertext transfer protocol, web page transmission
IMAP: port 143, the mail client can obtain mail information from the mail server through this protocol , Download emails, etc.
The main requirement here is to send emails, so it should be done by initiating a TCP connection to port 25 of the SMTP server. Choose option B for the first blank answer, and choose option B for the second blank answer.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 15: Yellow]
15. System ( ) refers to the ability to effectively implement specified functions within a specified time and under specified conditions. It depends not only on factors such as the specified conditions of use, but also on design techniques. Commonly used metrics mainly include failure rate (or failure rate), average failure waiting time, average failure interval time, and reliability. Among them, ( ) is the probability that the system will have no failure within the specified working time.
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Understandability
D. Testability
"
A. Failure rate
B. Average waiting time to failure
C. Average time between failures
D. Reliability

Answer: Choose A|D for the answer. The second blank error, this question examines the reliability analysis of the system.
Reliability:
refers to the ability to effectively realize the specified functions within the specified time and under specified conditions. It depends not only on factors such as the specified conditions of use, but also on design techniques. Commonly used metrics mainly include failure rate (or failure rate), average failure waiting time, average failure interval time, and reliability. Among them, the reliability is the probability that the system will not fail within the specified working time .
Usability
Usability refers to the degree of convenience, use, and ease of use of a program from the user's point of view. A usable program should be easy to use, allow users to make mistakes and changes, and avoid confusing users as much as possible.
Testability:
Refers to the ease with which a software program can be verified to be correct.
Software with good testability usually means that the software design is simple and the complexity is low. Because the greater the complexity of the software, the more difficult it is to test.
Comprehensibility:
The ease with which a program functions and how it works, by reading the source code and associated documentation. In summary, the answer should be AD.

[Question 16 of the 2022 Architecture Real Questions: Red]
16. The characteristics of data assets include ()
① value-added ② testable ③ shareable ④ maintainable ⑤ controllable ⑥ quantifiable
A.①②③④
B.①②③⑤
C.①②④⑤
D.①③⑤⑥

Answer: Answer choice D.
In everyday life, data is everywhere. But not all data can be assets. As an asset, data needs to have the following characteristics: controllable, quantifiable, and cashable. Therefore, data assets generally have virtuality, sharing, effectiveness, security, exchange and scale.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 17: Red]
17. The Data Management Capability Maturity Assessment Model (DCMM) is China's first national standard in the field of data management. DCMM proposes a data management framework that is in line with China's enterprises. The framework will organize data Management capabilities are divided into 8 capability domains, namely: data strategy data governance, data architecture, data standards, data quality, data security, ( ).
A. Data application and data life cycle
B. Data application and data testing
C. Data maintenance and data life cycle
D. Data maintenance and data testing

Answer: Answer choice A.
DCMM defines 8 core competency domains including data strategy, data governance, data architecture, data application, data security, data quality, data standards and data life cycle, which are subdivided into 28 process areas and 445 capability level standards, and the enterprise Data management capability maturity is divided into five levels, from low to high: initial level (level 1), managed level (level 2), robust level (level 3), quantitative management level (level 4) and optimized level (Level 5).
Data strategy: data strategy planning, data strategy implementation, data strategy evaluation Data governance: data governance organization, data system construction, data governance communication Data architecture: data model, data distribution, data integration and sharing, metadata management Data application: data analysis , Data Open Sharing, Data Service Data Security: Data Security Policy, Data Security Management, Data Security Audit Data Quality: Data Quality Requirements, Data Quality Inspection, Data Quality Analysis, Data Quality Improvement Data Standards: Business Data, Reference Data and Master Data , data element, index data data life cycle: data requirements, data design and opening, data operation and maintenance, data decommissioning, so the answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 18: Yellow]
18. A complete information security system includes at least three types of measures, namely technical security measures, management security measures and corresponding ( ). Among them, the technical measures of information security mainly include: information encryption, digital signature, identity authentication, access control, network control technology, anti-virus technology, ( ).
A. User requirements
B. Policies and laws
C. Market requirements
D. Field requirements
"
A. Data backup and data testing
B. Data migration and data backup
C. Data backup and disaster recovery
D. Data migration and data testing

Answer: Choose B|C for the answer. The system security analysis and design are investigated. Both questions are correct.
A complete information security system includes at least three types of measures: technical security measures, management security measures and corresponding policies and laws. Information security technology involves three aspects: the security of information transmission, the security of information storage, and the auditing of the content of information transmitted on the network, and of course also includes the authentication and authorization of users.
The technical measures of information security mainly include: information encryption, digital signature, identity authentication, access control, network control technology, anti-virus technology, data backup and disaster recovery. To achieve safety management, there should be a special safety management organization; there should be special safety management personnel; there should be a gradually improved management system; there should be gradually provided safety technical facilities.
Information security management mainly involves the following aspects: personnel management: equipment management; site management; storage media management; software management; network management; password and key management. Relevant domestic laws and regulations: the Regulations of the People's Republic of China on Computer Security Protection, the Regulations of the People's Republic of China on Commercial Encryption, the Interim Measures of the People's Republic of China on the Administration of International Networking of Computer Information Networks, the Notice on the Recordation of Computer Information Systems Connected to the International Network, and the International Networking of Computer Information Networks. Network security protection management measures, etc. To sum up, the answer chooses option B and C.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 19: Red]
19. Compared with the waterfall model, ( ) reduces the cost of implementing requirement changes, and it is easier to get feedback from customers on the completed development work, and customers can use the software earlier and derive value from it.
A. Rapid prototyping model
B. Agile development
C. Incremental development
D. Smart model

Answer: Answer choice C. The wrong choice of C needs to be focused.
[Advantages of the incremental model]
Reduces the cost of implementing requirement changes. The workflow of reanalyzing and revising documents is much less than that of the waterfall model
. It is easier to get customer feedback on the completed development work during the development process. Customers can evaluate the existing version of the software and judge the progress of the project; customers usually find it difficult to evaluate the project and judge the progress of the project from the software design documents. Even if not all functions are implemented, useful software can be delivered to customers early
. Compared with the waterfall model, customers can use the software earlier
[disadvantages of the incremental model]
The process is not visible. Managers need regular deliverables to keep track of progress. If the system is being developed rapidly, it is not cost-effective to generate documentation for each release. As new increments are added, the system structure degenerates.
Agile methods recommend refactoring software on a regular basis. In the face of large, complex and long-life systems, the above shortcomings of the incremental model are more prominent. Different parts of a large system are developed by different teams and require a stable framework or architecture that needs to be planned in advance rather than developed incrementally. Option C should be selected here.

[2022 Architecture Real Questions No. 20: Red]
20. CMMI is an integrated maturity model for software companies to evaluate capabilities in various aspects. During the implementation process, software companies should organize a system writing team to establish a system based on CMMI's software quality management system documents, the hierarchical structure of the system documents is generally divided into four layers, including:
①Top-level policy
②Template files
③Process files
④Procedure files
are arranged in a tower from top to bottom, the correct order of the following is ( twenty three).
A.①④③②
B.①④②③
C.①②③④
D.①③④②

Answer: Answer choice D. Knowledge of software process improvement.
The person in charge of each process definition completes the preparation of relevant documents according to the CMMI system document writing norms. Relevant documents are arranged from top to bottom:
1) Policy documents
Process documents and other relevant documents should follow the policy documents
2
) Process documents
Prepare each PA process document according to the process document template
, and describe the process.
3) Guidelines/Specification Documents: Combined with the corresponding templates, clearly explain how to complete this work, and explain the corresponding standards
and requirements.
4) Template files
There are two types of templates, one is a word document template, and the other is an excel form template.
Word document: make use of the company’s existing templates as far as possible, and give specific explanations or examples for the parts that need to be filled in and replaced; Excel
table: mainly used for templates that need to automatically calculate data, and give Give specific explanations or examples. So the answer is option D.

[2022 Architecture Real Questions No. 21: Green]
21. The information modeling method is to build a model of the real world from the perspective of data. The model is an abstraction of the real system. The basic tool of the information modeling method is ( ).
A. Flowchart
B. Entity Relationship Diagram
C. Data Flow Diagram
D. Data Dictionary

Answer: Answer choice B. Send sub-questions, but pay attention to judging from these keywords from the perspective of data, so that you know that this is an information modeling method.
Several common information system modeling methods:
(1) Structural modeling method
Structural modeling method is a process-centric technology that can be used to analyze an existing system and define the business requirements of a new system. The fundamental tool of the structured modeling approach is the Data Flow Diagram (DFD).
(2) Information modeling method
Information modeling method is to build a model of the real world from the perspective of data. The model is an abstraction of the real system. It emphasizes the research and analysis of data requirements before analyzing and researching process requirements. The basic tool of the information modeling method is the Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD).
(3) Object-oriented modeling method
The object-oriented modeling method integrates "data" and "process" into a structure called "object", which eliminates the artificial separation of data and process. The model created by the object-oriented modeling method is called the object model. With the continuous development and application of object-oriented technology, an object-oriented modeling standard, namely UML (Unified Modeling Language), has been formed. UML defines these model diagrams to build an information system or application system together in the form of objects. So the answer is option B.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 22: Green]
22. ( ) is usually an iterative process, in which activities include requirements discovery, requirements classification and organization, requirements negotiation, and requirements documentation.
A. Requirements Confirmation
B. Requirements Management
C. Requirements Extraction
D. Requirements Specifications

Answer: Answer choice C. After inspecting requirements engineering, we need to pay special attention to changing the name of requirements development.
The purpose of the requirements extraction process is to understand what stakeholders do and how they will use a new system to support their work. Extracting and understanding requirements from system stakeholders is a difficult process for the following reasons:
1. Stakeholders often don't know what they want from a computer system, other than in very general terms; they may find it difficult to articulate what they want the system to do; they may make unrealistic demands because They don't know what works and what doesn't.
2. Stakeholders in a system will naturally express requirements in their own words, which implies some knowledge about their own work.
3. Different stakeholders have various needs, and they express their needs in different ways.
4. Political factors may affect system requirements.
5. The economic and business environment in which requirements analysis is performed is dynamic and inevitably changes during the analysis process.
The process of demand extraction and analysis is mainly divided into the following four steps:
1. Requirements discovery and understanding;
2.
3. Requirements classification and organization; Demand prioritization and negotiation;
4. Documentation of requirements. The answer is option C.
There are two basic methods for demand extraction:
1. Interviews, where developers and others talk about what they do.
2. Observational or ethnographic surveys, watching people do their work to understand which artifacts they use, how they use them, etc.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 23: Green]
23. Using a model-driven software development approach, a software system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically converted into executable code. Among them, ( ) models the software system without involving the implementation.
A. Platform-independent model
B. Computation-independent model
C. Platform-dependent model
D. Implementation-dependent model

Answer: Answer choice A. important. The knowledge points of the information system development method are examined.
Model-driven architecture is a model-focused approach to software design and implementation that uses a subset of UML models to describe systems, where models at different levels of abstraction are created. The model-driven architecture (MDA) approach suggests that the following three types of abstract system models should be produced:
1. Computation Independent Model (CIM)
CIM models the important domain abstractions used in the system and is therefore sometimes referred to as the domain model.
2. Platform-Independent Model (Platform - Independent Model, PIM)
PIM models the operation of the system without involving the implementation.
3. Platform-specific model (Platform-Specific Model, PSM)
PSM is obtained after converting the platform-independent model, and there is a separate PSM for each application platform. The answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 24: Red]
24. In a distributed system, middleware usually provides two different types of support, namely (27)
A. Data support and interactive support
B. Interactive support and providing public services
C . Data support and provision of public services
D. Security support and provision of public services

Answer: Answer choice B. Examine knowledge of component middleware.
In a distributed system, middleware usually provides two different types of support:
1. Interaction support, middleware coordinates the interaction between different components in the system.
2. Provide public services, that is, middleware provides reusable implementations of services. These services may be required by many components in a distributed system.
Common services are services that are required by various components, regardless of their functionality. These services, you can think of these services as provided by middleware containers. Your components can be deployed in this container and these components can access and use these public services. The answer is option B.

[Question 25 of the 2022 architecture real question: green]
25. Workflow represents a business process model, which is usually described in graphical form. The following cannot be used to describe workflow (28)
A. Activity diagram
B. BPMN
C. Use Case Diagram
D.Petri - Net

Answer: Answer choice C. This question examines business process modeling.
The business process modeling methods mainly include:
1. Flow chart (flow chart)
is the earliest graphical description method used for business processes. It is easy to learn and easy to understand, but it cannot clearly define the process boundaries and does not support hierarchical description of business Process and other issues;
2. Role Activity Diagram (RAD) and Role Interaction Diagram (Role Interaction
Diagram, RID)
are good at describing the interaction between roles and activities, and roles and roles, but they do not support hierarchical description of business processes;
3 , IDEF0 and 1DEF3, IDEF0 describes what the business process does, but does not specify who does it; IDEF3 answers how to do it, but it is difficult to describe complex business processes; 4. Advanced Petri nets have a strong mathematical foundation and can calculate
/
simulate and analyze business Process performance, but it is difficult for users to learn;
5. The unified modeling language (Uniform Modeling Language, UML)
activity diagram is easy to learn and use, but the simulation and analysis capabilities of the model are poor;
6. BPMN is a business flow chart A graphical method to formally represent business processes, and a series of business components defined by it can be used to form a business flow chart. The answer is option C.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 26: Green]
26. Common functions of (29) include version control, change management, configuration status management, access control, and security control.
A. Software testing tools
B. Version control tools
C. Software maintenance tools
D. Software configuration management tools

Answer: Answer choice D. Examine configuration management in project management.
Common functions of configuration management tools include version control, change management, configuration state management, access control and security control, etc. Configuration management tools include version control tools. Version control tools are used to store, update, restore and manage multiple versions of a piece of software. The answer is option D.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 27: Yellow]
27. Unlike UML 1.x, in order to express the structure of UML more clearly, starting from UML2, the entire UML specification is divided into two relatively independent parts, the basic structure and the superstructure , the basic structure is UML (30), which defines various basic elements for constructing UML models; while the superstructure defines the syntax, semantics and representation of various UML models for modeling users.
A. Meta element
B. Model
C. Meta model
D. Meta meta model

Answer: Answer choice C. The investigation is UML pair. Focus.
The design goal of UML 2.0 infrastructure is to define the core of a metalanguage [InfrastructureLibrary]. Through the reuse of this core, in addition to defining a self-extensive UML metamodel, other metamodels can also be defined, including MOF and CWM (Common Warehouse Model, public warehouse model). UML is more consistent with MOF and CWM in terms of architecture due to the common core library. At the same time, InfrastructureLibrary also provides a more powerful mechanism for customizing UML, allowing users to define languages ​​for different platforms (such as. NET, J2EE, etc.) and fields (such as telecommunications, finance, and system engineering).

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 28: Green]
28. Domain-driven design proposes software design and development around (31). This model is a model that reflects deep-level domain knowledge built by developers and domain experts in collaboration.
A. Behavior model
B. Domain model
C. Expert model
D. Knowledge base model

Answer: Answer choice B. A review of information systems development methods.
Domain-driven design emphasizes the importance of the domain model, and ensures the consistency between the domain model and program design through model-driven design. Extract a unified language (Ubiquitous Language) from business requirements, and then build a domain model based on the unified language; this domain model will guide program design and coding implementation; finally, discover implicit concepts through refactoring, and use design patterns to improve Design and development quality. The domain model is a model that reflects deep domain knowledge built by developers and domain experts.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 29: Green]
29. Among the following descriptions about microservice architecture and service-oriented architecture, the correct one is (32).
A. Both adopt decentralized management
B. Both adopt centralized management
C. The microservice architecture adopts decentralized management, and the service-oriented architecture adopts centralized management
D. The microservice architecture adopts centralized management, and the service-oriented architecture adopts centralized management Adopt decentralized management

Answer: Answer choice C. Examine service-oriented architecture.
The microservice architecture uses a decentralized flat management method. Each service is an independent application that is independently managed, uses an independent database, is independently deployed, and operates independently. SOA is a monolithic architecture that uses centralized management and a unified data center. The answer is option C.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question No. 30: Green]
31. In UML20 (Unified Modeling Language), sequence diagrams are used to describe message interactions between objects, in which complex interactions such as loops and selections are represented by (33), between objects The message types include (34).
A. Nesting
B. Swimming lane
C. Combination
D. Sequence fragment
"
A. Synchronous message, asynchronous message, return message, dynamic message, static message
B. Synchronous message, asynchronous message, dynamic message, participant creation message, participant destruction Message
C. Synchronous message, asynchronous message, static message, participant creation message, participant destruction message
D. synchronous message, asynchronous message, return message, participant creation message, participant destruction message

Answer: The answer is D|D.
A sequence diagram (sequence diagram) is a model used to show how actors interact with the objects of a system in a series of sequential steps. Sequence diagrams can be used to show how objects interact with each other.
The sequence diagram focuses on the message sequence, that is, emphasizes how messages are sent and received between objects, in which complex interactions such as loops and selections are represented by sequence fragments, and the types of messages between objects include synchronous messages, asynchronous Messages, return messages, participants create messages, and participants destroy messages. The sender of a synchronous message waits for the message receiving object to process the message before continuing. The sender of an asynchronous message continues without waiting for the receiver after sending the message. processing. The return message means that when an object sends a message to another object, the dotted line returned by the other object indicates that the original message has been processed. Creating a message means creating a target object for message delivery. Destroy messages indicate the deletion of the object to which the message was passed.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti No. 31: Green]
32. The following description of the characteristics of components is incorrect. (35)
A. A component is an independent deployment unit
B. A component can be used as a third-party assembly unit
C. A component No externally visible state
D. Components are detachable as deployment units

Answer: Answer choice D. This question examines the knowledge point of component definition.
Definition of components
Definition 1:
A software component is an assembly unit, which has a standardized interface specification and explicit context dependencies. Software components can be deployed independently and assembled arbitrarily by third parties.
Definition 2:
A component is a valuable, almost independent and replaceable part of a system that fulfills a clear function within a well-defined architectural context.
Definition 3:
A component is an independently released functional part whose services can be accessed through its interface.
Features of components
1. Independent deployment unit;
2. As a third-party assembly unit;
3. No (external) visible state.
The characteristics of the component are only the above three points, and the statement of option D is incorrect, so the answer is D.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 32: Green]
32. In the definition of a component, (36) is a collection of a named set of operations.
A. Interface
B. Object
C. Function
D. Module

Answer: Answer choice A.
An interface is a named collection of operations. Clients of components (usually other components) use the services provided by components through these access points. Typically, components have multiple different interfaces at different access points. Each access point will provide different services to cater to different customer needs. It is very important to emphasize the contractual nature of the component interface specification, because the component and its clients are developed independently without mutual knowledge, and the contract provides a common middle layer to ensure the successful interaction between the two. The answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 33: Red]
33. Among the typical solutions of the server-side component model, (37) is more suitable for application servers.
A. EJB and COM+ model
B. EJB and Servlet model
C. COM+ and ASP model
D. COM+ and Servlet

Answer: Answer choice B. The knowledge points of middleware concepts are poor.
Typical solutions for server-side component models include the EJB model (part of Sun's J2EE) and COM + model (Microsoft) for application servers, and the servlet model for Web servers (based on Sun's JSP technology) and Visual Basic and other technologies (based on Microsoft's ASP technology) Microsoft's. NET Framework also introduces a new CLI (Command Line Interface)-based component model for both client and server. So the answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 34: Green]
34. Among the following descriptions about component evolution, the statement is incorrect (38)
A. Installing a new version of the component may conflict with the existing system
B. The component usually also experiences normal The evolution process of software products
C. To solve the problem of legacy system migration, it is also necessary to use wrapper components to better adapt to the old version of the software
D. To install the new version of the build, all existing version components in the system must be terminated and then run

Answer: Answer choice D.
Component technology embodies a thought of later assembly. The gradual maturity of components will further delay the assembly (or binding) time, but with it, the whole system will become more and more fragile. Components usually also undergo the evolutionary process common to software products. Installing a new version of a component will conflict with existing systems that expect to use an older version of a component, or even directly conflict with an existing instance of an older version of a component. Compared with the instantiated components, the later a component is obtained from the component library and instantiated, the more serious the potential version conflict problem will be. In a distributed system, it is impractical to terminate all existing component instances in order to install a new version of the component instance. Binary interoperability between different versions of clients and different versions of component instances needs to be considered in inter-version binary compatibility. How to implement online version upgrade of component instances is still a very active research field. In actual configuration, it is necessary to consider the situation that different version instances of components coexist in one system. System upgrades are an important example. In addition to adopting multi-version coexistence technology, solving the problem of "legacy system migration" also needs to use wrapper components to adapt to old software or solve system incompatibility. In summary, the statement of option D is incorrect, so choose option D for the answer.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 35: Green]
35. In software complexity measurement, (39) can reflect the complexity of the original code structure.
A. Number of modules
B. Number of loops
C. Number of users
D. Number of objects

Answer: Answer choice B. Send sub-questions.
The number of cycles in a program graph is a measure of the complexity of the source code. Cyclomatic complexity is a measure of code complexity, the goal is to guide programmers to write more testable and maintainable code. It can be used to measure the complexity of a module decision structure. According to the McCabe metric, the calculation formula is: V ( G ) = e - n +2, where e represents the number of edges in the control flow graph, and n represents the number of edges in the control flow graph. The number of nodes in the flow graph, including start and end points.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 37: Green]
37. In the white box test, the test intensity is the highest (40)
A. Statement coverage
B. Branch coverage
C. Decision coverage
D. Path coverage

Answer: Answer choice D. Send sub-questions.
White-box testing designs test cases based on the internal logic of the software. The commonly used technique is logic coverage, which is to examine the coverage of the program logic when the test data is used to run the program under test. There are six main coverage standards: statement coverage, decision coverage, condition coverage, decision/condition coverage, combined condition coverage and path coverage.
(1) Statement coverage
Statement coverage refers to selecting enough test cases so that each statement of the program under test is executed at least once when these test cases are run. Obviously, statement coverage is a very weak coverage criterion.
(2) Determining coverage.
Decision coverage, also known as branch coverage, means that not only every statement is executed at least once, but every possible result (branch) of each decision is executed at least once. Decision coverage is stronger than statement coverage, but the coverage of program logic is still not high.
(3) Condition coverage.
The meaning of conditional coverage is not only to execute each statement at least once, but also to make each condition in the decision expression obtain various possible results. Condition coverage does not necessarily include decision coverage, and decision coverage does not necessarily include condition coverage.
(4) Judgment/condition coverage.
The logical coverage that satisfies decision coverage and condition coverage at the same time is called decision/condition coverage. It means that enough test cases are selected so that all possible results of each condition in the decision expression appear at least once, and all possible results of each decision itself appear at least once.
(5) Condition combination coverage
The meaning of condition combination coverage is to select enough test cases so that all possible combinations of condition results in each decision expression appear at least once. Obviously, a test case that satisfies condition combination coverage must also satisfy decision/condition coverage. Therefore, conditional combination coverage is the strongest of the 5 coverage criteria above. However, conditional combination coverage cannot yet guarantee that all possible paths in the program are traversed at least once.
(6) Path coverage
The meaning of path coverage is to select enough test cases so that each possible execution path of the program passes at least once. Path coverage actually considers all possible combinations of various judgment results in the program, so it is a relatively strong test case. test coverage.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 37: Green]
37. In black-box testing, the method (41) is most suitable for describing the different actions to be performed in complex situations composed of multiple logical condition value combinations.
A. Equivalence class
B. Boundary class
C. Decision table
D. Causal diagram

Answer: Answer choice C.
Equivalence class division: Different equivalence classes reveal different problems; valid equivalence classes/invalid equivalence classes.
Boundary value analysis: 1<= x <=10, the values ​​of x can be 0, 1, 10 and 11 as the test data
Wrong speculation: rely on the experience and intuition of the tester. Decision table: It is most suitable for describing the different actions
to be performed in the complex situation formed by the combination of multiple logical condition values . Cause-and-effect diagrams: Design test cases based on causal relationships between input conditions and output outcomes

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 38: Green]
38.(42) aims to test the correctness of the changed part and compliance with the changed requirements after the software is changed, as well as the original and correct functions, performance and other aspects of the software Non-prejudicial nature of the stated requirements.
A. Acceptance testing
B. Alpha testing
C. Beta testing
D. Regression testing

Answer: Answer choice D. Send sub-questions.
Confirmation testing, also known as qualification testing, is used to verify the consistency between software and user requirements. Confirmation testing includes: internal confirmation testing, Alpha testing, Beta testing, etc. Among them, Alpha testing and Beta testing are generally aimed at product-type software. Alpha test: It is a test conducted in a development environment, and a controlled test conducted by users/internal users in a simulated actual operating environment. Beta test: It is a test conducted by users in the actual use environment. The purpose of acceptance testing is to ensure that the software is ready and can be used by end users to perform the software's intended functions and tasks. Acceptance testing demonstrates to future users that the system works as intended. The purpose of regression testing is to test the correctness of the changed part and compliance with the changed requirements after the software is changed, as well as the non-destructiveness of the original, correct function, performance and other specified requirements of the software. The answer is option D.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 39: Green]
39. When evaluating legacy systems, for legacy systems with high technical content, low business value, and can only complete the business management of a certain department, the legacy system is generally used The evolution strategy is the (43) strategy.
A. Eliminate
B. Inherit
C. Integrate
D. Transform

Answer: Answer choice C.
within the four quadrants of the coordinates. Adopt different evolution strategies for legacy systems in different quadrants:
1.
The first quadrant of transformation strategy is a high-level, high-value area, that is, the legacy system has high technical content and high commercial value, and it has great potential. vitality. The transformation strategy is to add new functions or make improvements on the basis of legacy systems.
2. Inheritance strategy
The second quadrant is the low-level, high-value area, that is, the legacy system has low technical content but high commercial value, and the evolution strategy for this legacy system is inheritance.
3. Elimination strategy
The third quadrant is the low-level and low-value area, that is, the legacy system has low technical content and low business value. The evolutionary strategy for this legacy system is elimination, that is, a new system is fully redeveloped to replace the legacy system.
4. Integration strategy
The fourth quadrant is a high-level, low-value area, that is, the legacy system has high technical content, but its business value is low. Information islands are formed one by one, and the evolution strategy for this legacy system is integration.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 40: Green]
40. In the modeling and description of software architecture, multi-view is an important way to describe the software architecture, which embodies the idea of ​​(44). Among them, the 4+1 model is a commonly used type to describe the software architecture. In this model, "1" refers to (45), A. Separation of concerns B. Object-oriented C. Model-
driven
D.
UML
>
A.
Unification Scenario
B. Development View
C. Logical View
D. Physical View

Answer: The answer is A|A.
Multi-view representation describes the architecture of a particular system from different perspectives, resulting in multiple views, and organizes these views to describe the overall model. The view of each different side of the system reflects the specific aspects of the system that a group of system related personnel are concerned about, and the multi-view reflects the idea of ​​separation of concerns. Among them, the 4+1 model is a commonly used model to describe the software architecture, and the "4+1" view model describes the software architecture from the logical view, process view, physical view, development view and scenarios. Each view only cares about one aspect of the system, and only when combined together can it reflect the entire content of the system software architecture. In this model, "1" refers to the unified scene. So the first blank answer is option A, and the second blank answer is also option A.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 41: Yellow]
41. The architecture-based software design (Architecture-Based Software Design. ABSD) method is architecture-driven, which refers to the combination of (46) that constitutes the architecture. The ABSD method is a self-item-down, recursive refinement method by which the architecture of a software system is refined until it produces (47) A. Product,
functional requirements, and design activities
B. Business, quality, and functional requirements
C. Business, product, and functional requirements
D. Business, quality, and design activities A. Software products and code
B. Software components and classes C. Software components and connectors D. Classes and software code

Answer: The answer is B|B. The second is wrong.
The Architecture-Based Software Design (ABSD) approach emphasizes that software architecture design is driven by a combination of business, quality, and functional requirements. ABSD is a top-down, recursively refined software development method by which the architecture of a software system is refined until software components and classes can be produced . It is based on the decomposition of software system functions, realizes quality and business requirements by selecting an architectural style, and emphasizes the use of software architecture templates in the architecture design process. The ABSD method has three foundations: the first foundation is functional decomposition, in which the existing module-based cohesion and coupling techniques are used. The second foundation is to achieve quality and business needs through the choice of architectural style. The third basis is the use of software templates. So the first blank answer is option B, and the second blank answer is also option B.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 42: Red]
42. A software architectural style is a idiomatic pattern that describes the way a system is organized in a specific application area. Among them, in the batch processing style software architecture, each processing step is a separate program, each step must be started after the previous step is finished, and the data must be complete, passed in the manner of (48), rule-based The system includes a rule set, a rule interpreter, a rule data selector and (49)
A. Iteration
B. Overall
C. Unified format
D. Incremental
"
A. Interpretation engine
B. Virtual machine
C. Data
D. Working memory

Answer: Choose B|D for the answer. Focus.
A software architectural style is an idiomatic pattern that describes the way a system is organized in a particular application domain. The architectural style reflects the structural and semantic properties shared by many systems in the domain, and guides how to effectively organize individual modules and subsystems into a complete system. Among them, each step of batch processing is independent, and each step is executed sequentially. Only when the previous step is processed can the subsequent step be processed. Data is transferred from step to step as a whole. (The components are a series of computing units in a fixed order, and the components only interact through data transmission. Each processing step is an independent program, and each step must be completed after the previous step. The data must be complete and in a holistic manner Typical application of batch processing: (1) classic data processing; (2) program development; (3) BAT program under Windows is a typical example of this application. The basic idea of ​​the virtual machine style is to artificially build an operating environment. On this environment, some custom languages ​​can be parsed and run, so as to increase the flexibility of the architecture. The virtual machine style mainly includes interpreter and rule-centric. architectural style. Among them, rule-based systems include rule sets, rule interpreters, rule/data selectors, and working memory. So the first blank answer is option B, and the second blank answer is option D.

[Question 43 of the 2022 Architecture Real Questions: Yellow]
43. In the reuse of software architecture, (50) means that during the development process, as long as there are reusable assets found, they will be reused. (51) means that before development, it is necessary to plan to decide what needs to be reused.
A. Discovery reuse
B. Opportunity reuse
C. Asset reuse
D. Process reuse
"
A. Expected reuse
B. Plan reuse
C. Asset reuse
D. System reuse

Answer: Choose A|D for the answer. The second space chooses B by mistake.
The types of software architecture reuse include opportunistic reuse and system reuse. Opportunistic reuse refers to the reuse of reusable assets as long as they are found during the development process. System reuse means that before development, it is necessary to plan to determine what needs to be reused.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 44: Green]
44. The main stages of the software reuse process include (52)
A. Analysis of reusable software assets, management of reusable assets and use of reusable assets
B. Construction/acquisition Reusable software assets, managing reusable assets and using reusable assets
C. Constructing/obtaining reusable software assets and managing reusable assets
D. Analyzing reusable software assets and using reusable assets

Answer: Answer choice B. The test experience is right.
Software reuse refers to the process of reusing the same or similar software elements in the software development process. It is a solution to avoid duplication of labor in software development. It makes the development of application systems no longer adopt the model of starting from scratch, but Based on the existing working mode, make full use of the knowledge and experience accumulated in the past application system development, so as to focus the development on the unique components of the application. The main stages of the software reuse process include constructing/obtaining reusable software assets, managing reusable assets and using reusable assets. The answer is option B.

[2022 Architecture Question No. 46: Green]
46. DSSA (Domain Specific Software Architecture) is a standard software architecture that provides organizational structure reference for a group of applications in a specific application field. The process of implementing DSSA includes a basic activity. Among them, the domain model is the main goal of the (53) stage.
A. Domain design
B. Domain implementation
C. Domain analysis
D. Domain engineering

Answer: Answer choice C. Monte focus.
Domain Specific Software Architecture (Domain Specific Software Architecture, DSSA) takes a specific problem domain as the object, forms a development infrastructure composed of domain reference model, reference requirements, reference architecture, etc., and its goal is to support multiple applications in a specific domain. generate. The basic activities of DSSA include domain analysis, domain design and domain implementation. Among them, the main purpose of domain analysis is to obtain the domain model, which describes the common requirements between systems in the domain, that is, domain requirements; the main goal of domain design is to obtain DSSA, which describes the solution to the requirements expressed in the domain model; the domain realization The main
goals are to develop and organize reusable information according to the domain model and DSSA, and to implement the underlying software architecture. So the answer is option C.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question 46: Yellow]
46. Software system quality attribute (Quality Attribute) is a measurable or testable attribute of a system. It is used to describe the degree to which the system meets the needs of stakeholders. Among them, ( 54) The focus is on the difficulty of locating the modification point and implementing the modification when it is necessary to modify defects, add functions, and improve quality attributes. (55) The focus is on maintaining high service quality of the software system when the number of users and data volume increase Ability.
A. Reliability
B. Testability
C. Maintainability
D. Reusability A. Usability
B. Scalability C. Scalability D. Portability

Answer: Choose C|C for the answer. The second is wrong.
Performance: refers to the ability of a software system to provide corresponding services in a timely manner. (Speed, throughput, sustained high speed)
Security: refers to the ability of a software system to simultaneously provide services to legitimate users and prevent unauthorized use.
Usability: Refers to the degree to which a software system is easy to use.
Scalability: refers to the ability of a software system to maintain a high quality of service when the number of users and the amount of data increase. For example, increase capacity by adding servers.
Interoperability: How easy it is to exchange data and invoke services with other systems.
Reliability: The ability to operate without failure for a certain period of time.
Continuous availability: refers to the ability of the system to operate without failure for a long time. Associated with reliability, it is often incorporated into reliability.
Robustness: refers to the ability of a software system to operate normally under some abnormal conditions (such as illegal operations by users, failures of related software and hardware systems, etc.). Also called robustness or fault tolerance.
Quality attributes during development:
Understandability: Refers to the degree of difficulty for a design to be understood by developers. Scalability: The ability of software to add new functionality in response to changing requirements. Also known as flexibility.
Reusability: Refers to the ease with which a software system or a part can be reused. Testability: The ease with which software can be tested to demonstrate that it meets the requirements specification.
Maintainability: When it is necessary to modify defects, add functions, and improve quality attributes, the ease of locating the modification point and implementing the modification.
Portability: The ease with which a software system can be transferred from one operating environment to a different operating environment.

[Question 47 of the 2022 Architecture Real Questions: Red]
47. In order to accurately describe the quality attributes of the software system, the Quality Attribute Scenario (Quality Attribute Scenario) is usually used as a means to describe the quality attributes. A quality attribute scenario is a specific quality attribute requirement and a brief statement of the interaction between stakeholders and the system, which consists of six parts: stimulus, stimulus, environment, product, (56). Among them, wanting to learn system characteristics, effectively use the system, minimize the impact of errors, adapt to the system, and be satisfied with the system belong to the stimuli of (57) quality attribute scenarios.
A. Responsiveness and Response Metrics
B. System and System Response
C. Dependency and Response
D. Response and Prioritization
A.
Usability
B. Performance
C. Ease of Use
D. Security

Answer: Choose A|C for the answer.
A quality attribute scenario is a specific quality attribute requirement and a brief statement of the interaction between stakeholders and the system. It consists of six parts: stimulus, stimulus, environment, product, response, and response measure.
Stimulus source: the entity generating the stimulus (person, computer system, or other motivator);
stimulus: the possible effects of the stimulus when it reaches the system (i.e., a situation requiring consideration and attention);
environment: the stimulus occurs within certain conditions. For example, the system may be in an overload situation;
artifact: the part of the system that is stimulated (an artifact is stimulated);
response: the action taken after the stimulus arrives;
response measure: when the response occurs, it should be able to correspond in some way to its Metrics, used to test whether requirements are met. So the first empty answer is option A.
The stimuli for scenarios based on usability quality attributes are: Errors: Omission (component does not respond to an input), Crash, Inappropriate timing (response too early or too late), Inappropriate response (response with an incorrect value).
Stimuli based on modifiable quality attribute scenarios are: add/delete/modify/change: function, quality attribute, capacity. Stimuli based on performance quality attribute scenarios are: regular events, random events, occasional events. The stimuli for scenarios based on security quality attributes are: Attempts to: display data, change/delete data, access system services, reduce availability of system services. The stimuli for scenarios based on the usability quality attributes are: learn system features, use the system effectively, minimize the impact of errors, adapt to the system, and be satisfied with the system.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 48: Green]
48. Changing the encryption level may have a very important impact on security and performance, so in software architecture evaluation, this design decision is a (58).
A. Sensitive point
B. Risky point
C. Balance point
D. Non-risky point

Answer: Answer choice C. Send sub-questions.
Sensitivity and trade-offs are key architectural decisions. Sensitive points are properties of one or more components. A trade-off point is a characteristic that affects multiple quality attributes and is a sensitive point for multiple quality attributes. Changing the level of encryption can have a very significant impact on security and performance. Increasing the encryption level can improve security, but may take more processing time and affect system performance. So that design decision is a tradeoff. So the answer is option C.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question No. 49: Red]
49. The utility tree is one of the tools for architecture evaluation using the Architecture Trade off Analysis Method (ATAM), and its tree structure from the root to the leaf nodes is ( 59).
A. Root, attribute classification, priority, quality attribute scenario
B. Tree root, quality attribute, attribute classification, quality attribute scenario
C. Tree root, priority, quality attribute, quality attribute scenario
D. Tree root, quality attribute, attribute classification, priority

Answer: Answer choice B. I chose C by mistake.
The process of generating quality attribute utility tree: such a tree can be selected: root—quality attribute——attribute classification (subdivision)—quality attribute scene (leaf). Prune this tree, keep important scenes (no more than 50), and then give priority to the scenes according to their importance (in the form of H / M / L), and then determine the priority according to the difficulty of scene realization (use H / M / L form), so that there is a priority pair (importance, difficulty) for each selected scene, such as (H, L) indicates that the scene is important and easy to achieve.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question No. 50: Red]
50. The mean time to failure (mean time to failure, MTTF) and the mean time between failures (mcan time between failure, MTBF) are the main indicators for system reliability analysis. In the case of constant failure rate and short repair time, (60).
A. MTTF is much smaller than MTBF
B. MTTF and MTBF cannot be calculated
C. MTTF is much larger than MTBF
D. MTTF and MTBF are almost equal

Answer: Answer choice D. This question examines the reliability analysis of the system. Don’t make mistakes.
Mean time between failures → ( MTTF ) MTTF = 1/In, In is the failure rate Mean time to repair to failure → ( MTTR ) MTTR = 1/μ, μ is the repair rate Mean time between failures → ( MTBF ) MTBF = MTTR + MTTF System Availability → MTTF /( MTTR + MTTF )x100%
In practical applications, MTTR is generally very small, so it is generally considered that MTBF ~ MTTF. So the answer is option D

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 51: Green]
51. When analyzing software system security, (61) ensure that information is not leaked to unauthorized users, entities or processes; integrity ensures the integrity and accuracy of information, preventing information (62) Guarantee the ability to control the dissemination and content of information, and prevent it from being used by illegal persons.
A. Integrity
B. Non-repudiation
C. Controllability
D. Confidentiality
"
A. Integrity
B. Security Audit
C. Encryption
D. Controllability

Answer: The answer is D|D.
Security (security) refers to the ability of the system to prevent unauthorized users from attempting to use or deny services while providing services to legitimate users. Security can be divided into confidentiality (information is not disclosed to unauthorized users, entities or processes), integrity (to ensure the integrity and accuracy of information, and to prevent information from being tampered with), non-repudiation (non-repudiation, that is, The existence of the mechanism, the sender cannot deny the behavior of sending information and the content of the information.) and controllability (the ability to control the dissemination and content of information, to prevent illegal use) and other characteristics. In summary, the first blank answer is option D, and the second blank answer is also option D.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 52: Red]
52. When evaluating the architecture, you must first clarify the specific quality goals and use them as the standard for judging the quality of the architecture. The mechanism employed to arrive at these goals is called a scenario, which is a short statement of the interaction with the system from the point of view of (63).
A. Users
B. System Architects
C. Project Managers
D. Stakeholders

Answer: Answer choice D. The wrong choice is the user.
Scenarios: When evaluating the architecture, it is generally necessary to accurately obtain specific quality goals first, and use them as a criterion for judging the quality of the architecture. The mechanism used to arrive at these goals is called a scenario. A scenario is a short description of the interaction with the system from the perspective of the stakeholder. In architecture evaluation, three aspects are generally used to describe the scene: stimulus, environment and response. In summary, the answer is D

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 53: Yellow]
The 53.5G network adopts (64) to divide the 5G network into multiple virtual networks. The access, transmission and core network of each virtual network are logically independent. Any virtual network A failure will not affect other virtual networks.
A. Network slicing technology
B. Edge computing technology
C. Network isolation technology
D. Software-defined network technology

Answer: Answer choice A. Mongolia right.
The slicing technology of the 5G network is to divide the 5G network into multiple virtual networks to support more applications. It is to divide a physical network into multiple virtual end-to-end networks. Each virtual network, including equipment, access, transmission and core network in the network, is logically independent. Any failure of any virtual network will not Will affect other virtual networks. A network slice can be divided into at least three parts: wireless network sub-slice, bearer network sub-slice and core network sub-slice. The answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 54: Yellow]
54. Among the following wifi authentication methods, (65) uses the AES encryption algorithm, which is more secure.
A. Open
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. WEP

Answer: Answer choice C. Mongolia right.
WEP: The most basic encryption technology, the full name is Wired Equivalent Privacy. It is a data encryption algorithm. Its security technology is derived from the RSA data encryption technology named RC4. It is a necessary security protection layer for wireless local area network WLAN. In the wireless network using this technology, all the data of the client and the wireless access point will be encrypted with a shared key, and the common key lengths are 64 bits and 128 bits.
WPA: WiFi Protected Access, the full name is WiFi network security access. The WPA protocol is generated on the basis of the previous generation of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), which solves the defects of the previous WEP. It uses the TKIP (I Temporal Key Integrity) protocol, which is a transitional solution in the IEEE802.11i standard. It is more thorough than WEP in terms of security protection, mainly reflected in identity authentication, encryption mechanism and data packet inspection, and it also improves the management ability of wireless networks.
WPA2: It is an upgraded version of WPA encryption. It is an authentication form of the IEEE802.11i standard verified by the WiFi Alliance. WPA2 implements the mandatory elements of 802.11i. In particular, the Michael algorithm is recognized as completely safe by the CCMP (Counter Mode Cipher Block Chain Message Integrity Code Protocol) message authentication code. Replaced, and the RC4 encryption algorithm was also replaced by AES (Advanced Encryption). So the answer is option C.
WPA-PSK /WPA2-PSK: It is a mixture of two encryption algorithms, WPA and WPA2, and is currently the most secure WiFi encryption mode.
WPA - PSK is also called WPA - Personal (WPA Personal).
WPA-PSK uses TKIP encryption to associate wireless devices with access points. WPA2-PSK uses AES encryption method to connect wireless devices and access points. Using AES encryption algorithm not only has higher security performance, but also uses the latest technology, so it is faster than TKIP in wireless network transmission rate. .

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 55: Yellow]
55. Programmer A sent a software program he had written to colleague B for discussion. After that, A gave up the program and decided to redevelop it. Later, B slightly modified the program And sign their own name in a technology forum release. Among the following statements, the correct one is (66).
A. B’s behavior violated A’s software copyright on the program.
B. B’s behavior did not infringe because it was released on a technical forum for the purpose of communication and learning.
C. B’s behavior did not infringe A’s software copyright, because A The program has been abandoned
D. B has modified the program, so B enjoys the software copyright of the program

Answer: Answer choice A.
Laws, Regulations and Standardization > Reference Answers for Infringement Determination
Copyright is automatically generated by the completion of the work, without any registration or registration procedures, and regardless of whether it has been published, so A has the copyright to the software work. B's act of using A's software work without A's permission violates A's software copyright. The answer is option A.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 56: Green]
56. Among the following statements about the creation time of software copyright, the correct one is (67).
A. The software copyright arises when the software is first published
B. The software copyright arises when the developer has the intention of developing it
C. The software copyright arises from the date when the software development is completed
D. The software copyright arises when the software copyright is registered

Answer: Answer choice C.
According to the "Regulations on the Protection of Computer Software", the copyright of software shall be generated from the date of completion of software development. The software copyright of a natural person is protected for the life of the natural person and 50 years after the death of the natural person, ending on December 31 of the 50th year after the death of the natural person; the software is jointly developed and ends on December 31 of the 50th year after the death of the last natural person March 31. For software copyrights of legal persons or other organizations, the protection period is 50 years, ending on December 31 of the 50th year after the software was first published. So the answer is option C.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 57: Green]
57. Company M has registered a trademark for a software product developed by it. In order to ensure that the company can occupy an advantageous position in the market competition, Company M has imposed confidentiality restrictions on its employees. In this case , the company does not enjoy (68).
A. Software copyright
B. Patent right
C. Trade secret right
D. Trademark right

Answer: Answer choice B.
M company has registered the trademark, then it enjoys the trademark right of the trademark, and the design and functions of the trademark should be completed before registration, so it naturally enjoys its copyright. Advantages, if the confidentiality constraints are imposed on employees, then they have the right to trade secrets. The patent right needs to be applied for. There is no mention of applying for a patent right here, so the company does not enjoy the patent right. The answer is B.

[2022 Architecture Zhenti Question No. 58: Red]
58. The random numbers generated by the computer can generally be evenly distributed in the (0,1) interval. Assuming that a certain elementary function f ( x ) takes a value in the (0,1) interval and is also in the (0,1) interval, if a large number ( M) of random number pairs ( rl , r2 ) generated by the computer meet There are N conditions for r2sf( rl ), then N/M can be used as the approximate calculation result of (69).
A. Solve the equation f ( x ) = x
B. Find the maximum value of f ( x )
C. Find the minimum value of f ( x )
D. Find the integral f ( x ) dx .

Answer: Answer choice D.
We know that the definite integral is actually an area, set it to 1, now we are asking for this 1. By randomly generating some random numbers in the area (usually a rectangle) containing the definite integral, the number is M, and then counting the random numbers in the integral area, the number is N, then the generated random numbers are in the integral area The probability within is N/M, and the ratio of this to the area of ​​the integral area and the area of ​​the total area 1 is N/M (that is, the approximate value of the area obtained by the definite integral 1). The answer is option D.

[2022 Architecture Real Question No. 59: Yellow]
59. A project includes four processes A, B, C, and D, the connection relationship between each process, the time and direct costs required for each process under normal progress, and rush work The time and direct costs required under the schedule are shown in the table below. The daily overhead required for this project is 45,000 yuan. According to this table, it will take (70) days to complete the project at minimum cost.

A.7
B.9
C.10
D.5

Answer: Answer choice A.
The table here means that homework A was originally completed in 3 days, and a total of 100,000 was required. He had to complete it in at least one day, and a total of 180,000 was required. That is an increase of 8/2=40,000. In the same way, it can be calculated that 10,000 yuan needs to be added for one day of compression B, 40,000 yuan for one day of compression C, and 20,000 yuan for one day of compression D. Therefore, first compress job D on the critical path for 2 days. At this time, the critical path changes to AB and ACD. If you want to shorten the construction period, you need to compress these two critical paths at the same time. Only when BD can be compressed at the same time can the increased direct cost be less than 4.5, so the BD job can be compressed for 1 day at the same time. At this time, it is the lowest cost. Job A needs to be completed in 1 day, job B needs to be completed in 6 days, job C needs to be completed in 4 days, and job D needs to be completed in 2 days. The critical path is AB and ACD, and the construction period is 7 days. The answer is option A.

【2022下架构真题第60题：红色】
60.Micro - service is a software development technology , which advocates dividing a single application into a group of small services , which coordinates and cooperates with each
other to provide ultimate value for users . The micro - service () has many important benefits . First , it solves the problem of business complexity . It decomposes the original huge single application into a group of services . Although the total amount of functions remains the same , the application has been decomposed into manageable
services . The development speed of a single service is much faster , and it is easier to understand and (). Second , this architecture allows each service to be () independently by a team . Developers are free to choose any appropriate technology . Third , the micro - service architecture mode enables each service to be () independently . Developers never need to coordinate the deployment of local changes to their services . These types of changes can be deployed immediately after testing . Finally , the micro - service architecture enables each service to () independently .
A.architecture
B.software
C.application
D.technology
》
A.develop
B.maintain
C.utilize
D.deploy
》
A.planned
B.developed
C.utilized
D.deployed
》
A.utilized
B.developed
C.Tested
D.deployed
》
A.analyze
B.use
C.design
D.expand

Answer: The answer is A|B|B|D|D.
Microservices is a software development technique that advocates dividing a single application into a set of small services that coordinate and cooperate with each other to provide ultimate value to users. Microservices (architecture) have many important benefits. First, it solves the problem of business complexity. It decomposes what was once a monolithic single application into a set of services. Although the total number of functions remains the same, the application has been broken down into manageable services. Individual services are much faster to develop and easier to understand and (maintain). Second, this architecture allows each service to be independently (developed) by a team. Developers are free to choose any suitable technology. Third, the microservice architectural pattern allows individual services to be independent (deployed). Developers never need to coordinate the deployment of local changes to their services. These types of changes can be deployed immediately after testing. Finally, microservices architecture allows each service to be able to (scale) independently.