Why is Huawei certification so popular now?

There are many reasons why Huawei certification is currently popular, here are some of the main ones:


High-quality certification training: Huawei Certification provides a series of high-quality training courses covering IT technology, network security, cloud computing and other fields. These training courses are designed and provided by Huawei's team of technical experts and engineers. They are rich in content and highly authoritative, and can help students systematically learn and master relevant technical knowledge and practical skills.


Market demand: With the rapid development and popularization of information technology, the demand for high-quality and highly skilled IT professionals continues to increase. Huawei certification provides training courses that are closely integrated with market needs, helping students acquire practical application capabilities and problem-solving skills, and improve their employment competitiveness.


Industry recognition: As the world's leading provider of information and communications technology solutions, Huawei's technologies and products are widely used and recognized around the world. As a certification system launched by Huawei, Huawei Certification has high industry recognition and is recognized and adopted by many enterprises and organizations.


Employment opportunities: Huawei certification can provide students with more employment opportunities. As a global enterprise, Huawei has an extensive partner network and customer resources, providing more employment opportunities and career development space for Huawei-certified students. Many companies will give priority to talents with Huawei certification when recruiting.


International certification: Huawei certification is an international certification system, and students can take certification exams and training around the world. This makes Huawei certification more internationally recognized and provides students with broader career development space and opportunities.


Continuously updated course content: Huawei Certification continuously updates course content to keep pace with technological developments, ensuring that the knowledge and skills learned by students are the latest. This enables students who have passed Huawei certification to have the ability to keep pace with the times and adapt to the rapid development and changes of the industry.


Good learning experience: Huawei certification focuses on students' learning experience and provides a variety of learning methods and learning resources, including online learning platforms, laboratory equipment, teaching materials, etc. Students can study independently according to their own needs and time arrangements to improve learning effectiveness.


Cost-effectiveness: Compared with other certification systems, Huawei certification training costs are relatively low, and it provides more preferential policies and incentive mechanisms. This enables more students to receive Huawei-certified training, improve their skills and competitiveness, and achieve personal career development.


To sum up, the reason why Huawei certification is popular is because of its high-quality training, courses that match market demand, high industry recognition, more employment opportunities, international certification, The combined impact of continuously updated course content, a great learning experience and cost-effectiveness. These factors make Huawei certification one of the important ways for IT professionals to improve their skills and obtain career development opportunities.

Huawei certification self-study materials--extraction code: 1234icon-default.png?t=N6B9https://pan.baidu.com/s/1YJhD8QbocHhZ30MvrKm8hg 

28. When the router forwards data packets, it needs to modify the destination IP address in the data packet.

Answer: Wrong

Analysis: This is how the router forwards data packets, so it will never change the IP address, only the MAC. When a data packet is transmitted to the router, the router first compares its destination address with the routing table.

29. In the RSTP protocol, when the edge port receives the configuration BPDU message, it loses the edge port attributes.

Answer: Correct

Analysis: However, once the edge port receives the configuration BPDU, it loses the edge port attributes, becomes a normal STP port, and recalculates the spanning tree, causing network flapping.

30. All ports on the root bridge switch are designated ports.

Answer: Correct

Analysis: Only non-root bridge devices will have a "root port". As for the root bridge itself, you only need to specify one of its own ports to connect to the corresponding root port. Therefore, there are designated ports on the root bridge and there is no root port.

31. In a Layer 2 network, if a loop occurs, a broadcast storm may occur.

Answer: Correct

Analysis: Layer 2 network devices are in the same broadcast domain, and broadcast messages will be continuously transmitted repeatedly in the loop, creating an infinite loop, forming a broadcast storm, causing MAC address table instability and other fault phenomena, thereby affecting normal services and causing user communication The quality is poor and even communication is interrupted.

32.Telnet is based on TCP protocol.

Answer: Correct

Analysis: The telnet port number is 23. Ports include physical ports and logical ports. Physical ports are interfaces used to connect physical devices, and logical ports are logical ports used to differentiate services.

33. The IEEE802.11ac standard only supports the 5GHz frequency band.

Answer: Correct

34. The only way for STA to discover the wireless network is through Beacon frames sent externally by the AP.

Answer: Wrong

Analysis: By default, the period for AP to send Beacon frames is 100TUs, the rate for 2.4G radio to send beacon frames is 5.5Mbps, and the rate for 5G radio to send beacon frames is 6Mbps.

35. Network devices running the SNMP protocol can proactively report alarm information so that network administrators can detect faults in a timely manner.

Answer: Correct

Analysis: SNMP defines several operations for network management devices, and can proactively send alarms to the network management when equipment fails. When network management uses the SNMP protocol, there are three roles: network management station (NMS), agent process (Agent), and managed device.

[Single choice question]

36. In the RSTP network, in order to improve the convergence speed, the port connecting the switch and the user terminal can be defined as?

A.Quick port

B. Backup port

C. Root port

D. Edge port

Answer: D

Analysis: In the RSTP standard, in order to improve the convergence speed, the port of the switch directly connected to the terminal is defined as an edge port. In RSTP, if a designated port is located at the edge of the entire network, it is no longer connected to other switching devices, but directly connected to the terminal device. This kind of port is called an edge port. The edge port does not participate in the RSTP operation and can be directly transferred from Disable to the Forwarding state without experiencing any delay, just like disabling STP on the port.​ 

37. Used to receive wireless networks in WLAN, what distinguishes different wireless networks?

A.AP Name

B.BSSID

C.OISS

D.VAP

Answer: C

Analysis: SSID (Service Set Identifier) ​​is the service set identifier, which is the identifier of the WLAN network and is used to distinguish different WLAN networks.

38.Which of the following mobile wireless service standards is not included in the history of WLAN development?

A.802.11b

B.802.11a

C.802.11g

D.802.11ac

Answer: D

Analysis:

39. What is the priority of OSPF on Huawei routers?

A.10

B.0

C.30

D.70

Answer: A

Analysis: The preference command is used to set the priority of OSPF protocol routing. The undo preference command is used to restore the default value of OSPF routing preference. By default, the OSPF route priority is 10. When ASE is specified, the default priority is 150.​  

40. Can the mask length be 12 bits expressed as?

A.255.255.255.0

B.255.248.0.0

C.255.255.0.0

D.255.240.0.0

Answer: D

Analysis: 255.240.0.0 The 12-bit mask is represented as 11111111.11110000.00000000.00000000

41. If two switches use manual link aggregation at the same time, which of the following statements is wrong?

A. Only close the G0/0/2 port on switch B, and the Eth-Trunk status is still UP.

B. Close G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 ports on switch B. The Eth-Trunk status is still UP.

C. Close only the G0/0/1 port on switch B, and the Eth-Trunk status is still UP.

D. Close G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 ports on switch B, and the Eth-Trunk status is down.

Answer: B

Analysis: Link aggregation (Eth-Trunk) is to bundle multiple physical interfaces into one logical interface to increase link bandwidth. When one of the interfaces goes down, it stops sending data on this interface and directly takes another path. , the interface can be down without any network interruption.

42.What is the basic ACL number range?

A.4000-4999

B.2000-2999

C.6000-6031

D.3000-3999

Answer: B

Analysis: ACL classification: 1. The interface ACL number range is 1000~1999, that is, 1000 interface ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the incoming interface for receiving packets. 2. The basic ACL number range is 2000~2999, which means 1000 basic ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source address of the packet. 3. Advanced ACL The number range of digital advanced ACL is 3000~3999, that is, 1000 digital advanced ACLs are supported. The number range of named advanced ACLs is 42768 to 75535, that is, 32768 named advanced ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source or destination address, protocol type, source or destination port number of the message. 4. The ACL number range based on the Ethernet frame header is 4000~4999, that is, 1000 ACLs based on the Ethernet frame header are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source or destination MAC address of the message and the Ethernet frame protocol type. 5. The MPLS-based ACL number range is 10000~10999, that is, 1000 MPLS-based ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the Exp value, Label value, and TTL value of MPLS packets. 6. The user ACL number range is 6000~9999

43. Among the IEEE802.11 standards, which ones can support both the 2.4G frequency band and the 5G frequency band?

A.802.11a

B.802.11b

C.802.11g

D.802.11n

Answer: D

Analysis: 802.11n supports both 2.4G and 5G

44.Which encryption algorithm used by WLAN has the highest security strength?

A. WEP

B.AES

C.CCMP

D.TKIP

Answer: C

Analysis: Since the CCMP encryption algorithm uses a more advanced encryption standard than TKIP, CCMP is considered to be the most secure and reliable encryption algorithm for current wireless networks.

45. The LACP mode of link aggregation uses LACPDU to elect the active end. Which of the following information will not be carried in LACPDU?

A.MAC address

B.Interface description

C.Interface priority

D.Device priority

Answer: B

Analysis: LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) is a protocol that implements dynamic link aggregation. The LACP protocol exchanges information with the peer through LACPDU (Link Aggregation Control Protocol Data Unit). After enabling the LACP protocol on a port, the port will notify the peer of its system priority, system MAC address, port priority, port number and operation key by sending LACPDU

46. ​​When the AP and AC are on different Layer 3 networks, which method is recommended for the AP to discover the AC?

A.DHCP

B.AP manually specified

C.Broadcast

D.DNS

Answer: A

Analysis: The source IP addresses of the AP and AC are not in the same network segment. When the AP obtains an IP address through DHCP, the DHCP server sends the source IP address of the AC along with it.

47. Which of the following statements about static routing is wrong?

A. Manual configuration through network administrator

B. Routers need to exchange routing information

C. Unable to automatically adapt to changes in network topology

D. Low system performance requirements

Answer: B

Analysis: Static routing is a routing method. Routing items are configured manually rather than dynamically determined. Unlike dynamic routing, static routing is fixed and will not change

48. When using the ping command on the VRP platform, if you need to specify an IP address as the source address of the echo request message, which of the following parameters should be used?

A.-d

B.-a

C.-s

D.-n

Answer: B

Analysis: -a: Set the source IP address for sending Echo Request messages. If the source IP address is not specified, the IP address of the outbound interface will be used as the source address for sending Echo Request packets. -i: Set the interface for sending Echo Request messages. If no interface is specified, the default route outbound interface will be used. -m: Set the waiting time for sending the next Echo Request message. The default value is 500 milliseconds. -c: Set the number of times to send Echo Request messages. The default value is 5. When the network quality is not high, you can increase the number of packets sent and detect the network quality through the packet loss rate. -f: Set the sent message not to be fragmented. After using the -f parameter, ICMP messages will not be fragmented. If the size of the ICMP message exceeds the MTU value of the link, the ICMP message will be discarded. You can prevent ICMP packets from being discarded by not using the -f parameter or increasing the link MTU value. -h: Set the TTL value. The default value is 255. During the packet forwarding process, if the value of the TTL field is reduced to 0, the device will send an ICMP timeout message to the source, indicating that the destination is unreachable.

49. Which of the following OSPF protocol messages can ensure the reliability of LSA updates?

A.DD

B.LSR

C.LSU

D.LSACK

Answer: D

Analysis: LSACK is used to ensure the reliability of LSA updates

50. The bridge IDs of the STP protocol in the switched network are as follows. Which of the following bridge IDs will the switch become the root bridge?

A.4096.00-01-02-03-04-DD

B.32768.00-01-02-03-04-AA

C.32768.00-01-02-03-04-BB

D.32768.00-01-02-03-04-CC

Answer: A

51. Which of the following statements about electing active ports in link aggregation LACP mode is correct?

A. Compare the interface priorities first. If the superior one cannot be determined, continue comparing the interface numbers. The smaller the interface number, the better.

B. Compare only interface priorities

C. Compare device priorities

D. Compare only interface numbers

Answer: A

Analysis: The smaller the interface LACP priority value, the higher the priority.

52. Which of the following statements about Hybrid ports are correct?

A.Hybrid ports can strip the tags of certain vlan frames in the outbound port direction.

B. When the Hybrid port sends data frames, it must carry the vlan tag

C.Hybrid port only receives data with vlan tag

D.Hybrid port does not require PVID

Answer: A

Analysis: When the hybrid port receives a message, it first determines whether the data frame carries a VLAN tag. If there is, then determine whether the VLAN exists in the untagged and tagged lists (at this time, the untagged list and tagged list only determine whether to allow passage, and have nothing to do with whether to tag it). If so, receive it, otherwise discard it. If the data frame does not carry a VLAN tag, add a VLAN tag that is the same as the port PVID and then receive it. When a hybrid port sends a packet, it first determines whether the VLAN tag of the data frame is in the untagged or tagged list. If it is untagged, it forwards the packet without removing the tag. If it is tagged, it forwards it directly without removing the tag. If it is not in the untagged or tagged list, the data frame will be discarded and not forwarded.

53. Which of the following are not open interfaces of Huawei network equipment?

A.RETCONF

B. CARRIES

C.XML

D.NETCONF

Answer: C

54.Using the commands "vlan batch 10 20" and "valn batch 10 to 20", what are the number of vlans that can be created respectively?

A.11 and 11

B.2 and 2

C.11 and 2

D.2 and 11

Answer: D

Analysis: vlan batch 10 20" means batch configuration of VLAN 10 to VLAN 20

55.What is the number range of Layer 2 ACL?

A.4000-4999

B.2000-2999

C.6000-6031

D.3000-3999

Answer: A

Analysis: ACL classification: 1. The interface ACL number range is 1000~1999, that is, 1000 interface ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the incoming interface for receiving packets. 2. The basic ACL number range is 2000~2999, which means 1000 basic ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source address of the packet. 3. Advanced ACL The number range of digital advanced ACL is 3000~3999, that is, 1000 digital advanced ACLs are supported. The number range of named advanced ACLs is 42768 to 75535, that is, 32768 named advanced ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source or destination address, protocol type, source or destination port number of the message. 4. The ACL number range based on the Ethernet frame header is 4000~4999, that is, 1000 ACLs based on the Ethernet frame header are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source or destination MAC address of the message and the Ethernet frame protocol type. 5. The MPLS-based ACL number range is 10000~10999, that is, 1000 MPLS-based ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the Exp value, Label value, and TTL value of MPLS packets. 6. The user ACL number range is 6000~9999

56.What is the number range of advanced ACL?

A.2000-2999

B.4000-4999

C.6000-6031

D.3000-3999

Answer: D

Analysis: ACL classification: 1. The interface ACL number range is 1000~1999, that is, 1000 interface ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the incoming interface for receiving packets. 2. The basic ACL number range is 2000~2999, which means 1000 basic ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source address of the packet. 3. Advanced ACL The number range of digital advanced ACL is 3000~3999, that is, 1000 digital advanced ACLs are supported. The number range of named advanced ACLs is 42768 to 75535, that is, 32768 named advanced ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source or destination address, protocol type, source or destination port number of the message. 4. The ACL number range based on the Ethernet frame header is 4000~4999, that is, 1000 ACLs based on the Ethernet frame header are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the source or destination MAC address of the message and the Ethernet frame protocol type. 5. The MPLS-based ACL number range is 10000~10999, that is, 1000 MPLS-based ACLs are supported. Filtering rules are mainly defined based on the Exp value, Label value, and TTL value of MPLS packets. 6. The user ACL number range is 6000~9999

57.What is the main function of DNS protocol?

A.File transfer

B.Remote access

C. Domain name resolution

D.Mail transmission

Answer: C

Analysis: DNS (Domain Name System), a distributed database on the Internet that maps domain names and IP addresses to each other, allows users to access the Internet more conveniently without having to remember IP numbers that can be directly read by machines. string. The process of finally obtaining the IP address corresponding to the host through the host name is called domain name resolution.

58. Which of the following protocols is not a file transfer protocol?

A.FTP

B.SFTP

C.HTTP

D.TFTP

Answer: C

59.Which of the advantages of Wi-Fi6 compared to Wi-Fi5 does not include the following?

A.Higher consumption

B. Higher number of access terminals per AP

C. Lower transmission delay

D. Higher bandwidth

Answer: A

60.What is the first operation the FIT AP performs after obtaining the IP address of the AC?

A. Establish a CAPWAP tunnel

B. Request configuration file

C. Download configuration file

D.Upgrade software version

Answer: A

Analysis: AP online process In a centralized network architecture, FIT AP needs to complete the online process so that the AC can achieve centralized management and control of the AP. The AP online process includes: 1 AP obtains IP address 2 CAPWAP tunnel establishment phase 3 AP access control phase 4 AP version upgrade phase 5 CAPWAP tunnel maintenance phase

61. Segment routing (SR) is a protocol designed based on what concept to forward data packets on the network?

A.Policy routing

B. Source routing

C. Routing strategy

D. Destination route

Answer: B

Analysis: SR (Segment Routing) is an architecture designed to forward data packets on the network based on the source routing concept, rather than a separate technology. SR divides the network path into segments and assigns segment identification IDs (SIDs) to these segments and forwarding nodes in the network. By arranging segments and network nodes in an orderly manner (Segment List), a forwarding path can be obtained.

62. In PPP, when both ends of the communication detect that the physical link is activated, it will transition from the link unavailable stage to the link establishment stage. At this stage, link parameters are mainly negotiated through the () protocol.

A.IP

B.LCP

C.NCP

D.DHCP

Answer: B

Analysis: Link Control Protocol LinkControlProtocol is used to establish, tear down and monitor PPP data links. Network Layer Control Protocol NetworkControlProtocol is used to establish connections and negotiate parameters for different network layer protocols. In order to adapt to a variety of link types, (here Refers to the physical layer link type) PPP defines the link control protocol LCP.

63. There is a TTL field in the IP packet header. Which statement is correct about this field?

A. This field is used for data packet loop prevention

B. This field is used for packet fragmentation

C. This field is used to indicate the priority of the data packet

D. The length of this field is 7 bits

Answer: A

Analysis: TTL (time to live), which is the time to live. This field indicates the maximum number of router hops that an IP datagram can pass through.

64.How many bytes is the length of the IPv6 basic header?

A.40

B.48

C. 32

D.64

Answer: A

65.Which field in the IPV6 header is similar to the TTL field in the IPV4 header?

A.hop limit

B.Next header

C.Traffic class

D.Version

Answer: A

Analysis: The meaning of the Hop Limit field in IPv6 is similar to the TTL of IPv4

66. In the SNMP protocol, which port number is used by the agent process to send alarm messages to the NMS by default?

A.161

B.163

C.164

D.162

Answer: D

Analysis: Port number 162: This port number is used when the SNMP Agent sends a Trap or Inform to the NMS. This port number supports user configuration

67. If the MAC address of an interface is 00E0-FCEF-OFEC, what is its corresponding EUI-64 address?

A.00EO-FCEF-FFFE-OFEC

B.02EO-FCFF-FEEF-OFEC

C.00EO-FCFF-FEEF-OFEC

D.02E0-FCEF-FFFE-OFEC

Answer: B

68. Which of the following commands can be used to query the configuration information of the OSPF protocol of the device?

A. Enter the command "display this" in the ospf protocol view

B.Display current-configuration

C.Display ospf peer

D.Display ip routing-table

Answer: A

Analysis: "display this" refers to viewing the configuration information under this view;

69.Which method of configuring the router does VRP not support?

A. Configure the router through the mini USB port

B. Configure the router through FTP

C. Configure the router through the console port

D. Configure the router through telnet

Answer: B

Analysis: The console port and mini usb port can directly manage the router (no network required) Telnet can remotely manage the router (the Telnet network connectivity of the management machine and the router needs to be ensured) FTP is used to upload and download files to the router, not Configuring and debugging the router

70. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Routers work at the network layer

B. The switch works at the physical layer

C. The switch works at the network layer

D. Routers work at the physical layer

Answer: A

71. When configuring OSpf on a router, what configurations must be performed manually?

A. Specify the network type of each Ospf-enabled interface

B. Create ospf area

C. Create ospf process

D. Configure Router ID

Answer: B

Analysis: Configuration that must be done manually when configuring OSPF to create an ospf area

72. If the network address of a network is 10.1.1.0/30, what is its broadcast address?

A.10.1.1.3

B.10.1.1.1

C.10.1.1.4

D.10.1.1.2

Answer: A

73. Which packet type does a network device running the SNMPV1 protocol use to proactively send alarm information?

A.Trap

B.Response

C.Get-Next Request

D.Get-Request

Answer: A

Analysis: Trap is information proactively sent to the NMS by the managed device without request, and is used to report urgent and important events. . The managed device must be configured with the Trap function before it actively sends this information.

74. The network administrator captured a data frame in the network, and its destination MAC address was 01-00-5E-A0-B1-C3. Which statement about the mac address is correct?

A. It is a multicast MAC address

B. It is a unicast MAC address

C. It is an illegal MAC address

D. It is a broadcast MAC address

Answer: A

Analysis: The first 25 bits of the multicast are fixed at 01005e0. The last 23 bits are directly mapped from the last 23 bits of the multicast IP address. For example, the multicast MAC address corresponding to the multicast group address 224.0.1.1 is 01-00-5e-00-01 -01 

75.Which of the following stages is not included in the PPPoE session establishment and termination process?

A.Discovery stage

B. Data forwarding stage

C.Conversation phase

D. Session termination phase

Answer: B

Analysis: The PPPoE session establishment process is divided into three stages: ① Discovery stage; ② Session stage; ③ Session termination stage

76.Which of the following commands configures the authentication mode to HWTACAS authentication?

A.authentication-mode hwtacacs

B.authentication-mode none

C.authorization-mode hwtacacs

D.authorization-mode local

Answer: A

Analysis: Users can execute the command authentication-mode (authentication scheme view) in the authentication scheme view to configure the authentication mode used by the current authentication scheme. After configuring the authentication scheme, execute the authentication-scheme command in domain view (AAA domain view)

77.What is the IEEE802.11 standard corresponding to Wi-Fi6?

A.IEEE802.11au

B.IEEE802.11ad

C.IEEE802.11ax

D.IEEE802.11at

Answer: C

Analysis: The Wi-Fi Alliance proposed the term "Wi-Fi 6" to refer to the IEEE 802.11ax standard, indicating that it is the sixth generation of Wi-Fi

[True or False]

78. The data link layer uses PPP encapsulation, and the IP addresses at both ends of the link do not need to be in the same network segment.

Answer: Correct

Analysis: PPP's NCP protocol can obtain the IP address of the peer device. Even if the IP addresses of both ends are not in the same network segment, they can ping each other.

[Single choice question]

79. Which of the following types of ACLs can match transport layer port numbers?

A. Advanced ACL

B.Basic ACL

C. Layer 2 ACL

D. Intermediate ACL

Answer: A

Analysis: The advanced access control table has expanded the matching items. The number range is 3000~3999. It can not only use the source IP address of the message, but also use the destination address, IP priority, IP protocol type, ICMP type, and TCP source. Port/destination port number and other information to define rules

80. Which of the following commands to configure the default route is correct?

A.[huawei]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

B.[huawei]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1

C.[huawei]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.25 5 0.0.0.0

D.[huawei]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

Answer: D

81. A company has applied for a Class C IP address segment and needs to distribute it equally to 8 subsidiaries. The largest subsidiary has 14 computers. Different subsidiaries must be in different network segments, so the subnet mask should be Set to?

A.255.255.255.192

B.255.255.255.128

C.255.255.255.240

D.255.255.255.0

Answer: C

Analysis: The maximum number of users is 14, plus the network number and subnet broadcast - a total of 16 addresses are needed, and the mask should be configured as 28 bits, 255.255.255.240

82. When the Access type port sends a message, it will ().

A. Print the PVID information of this port and then send it out

B. Send a tagged message

C. Strip the VLAN information of the packet and then send it out

D. Add the VLAN information of the message and then send it out

Answer: C

Analysis: After the Access port receives a message (the Access port usually receives the message from the terminal PC), it first determines whether there is VLAN tag information in the message: If there is no VLAN tag, the PVID of the Access port is added. Continue forwarding (after all, the Access port sends the packet to other ports after receiving it, and can identify the packet with a VLAN tag); if there is a VLAN tag (this packet must come from other non-Access ports and the terminal PC, because Access The port and terminal PC network card will not send VLAN-tagged packets), and they will be discarded directly by default. When sending a packet on the Access port, the VLAN information in the packet will be removed first (because the Access port generally sends packets to the terminal PC, and the network card in the PC cannot recognize the VLAN tag.

83. Which of the following port states does the RSTP protocol not include?

A.Forwarding

B.Learning

C.Discarding

D.Blocking

Answer: D

84. The network administrator created a VLAN on the Layer 3 switching machine and configured an IP address under the virtual interface of the VLAN. When using the "display ip interface brief" command to view the interface status, it is found that the VLANIF 10 interface is in the down state. What operations should be performed to restore the VLANIF 10 interface to normal?

A. Use the command "undo shutdown" under the VLANIF10 interface

B. Assign a physical interface whose status must be Up to VLAN10

C. Assign any physical interface to VLAN10

D. Assign an interface whose status must be Up and must be Trunk type to VLAN10

Answer: B

Analysis: The conditions for the vlanif interface to take effect (double up): 1. There must be a physical interface under the corresponding vlan, and the physical interface is up 2. There is no physical interface under the corresponding vlan, but there is a trunk that allows the vlan to pass (Activate) interface, vlanif is also effective

85. When using LACP mode for link aggregation, what is the default system priority of Huawei switches?

A.36864

B.24576

C.4096

D.32768

Answer: D

Analysis: After adding member interfaces to the Eth-Trunk in LACP mode, these interfaces will advertise their system priority, MAC address, interface priority, interface number and other information to the peer. Device priority: The smaller the system LACP priority value, the higher the priority. By default, the system LACP priority value is 32768

86. Which of the following descriptions of Layer 2 Ethernet switches is incorrect?

A. Layer 2 Ethernet switches work at the data link layer

B. Able to learn MAC address

C. It is necessary to make certain modifications to the Layer 3 header of the forwarded message before forwarding it

D. Forward according to the Layer 2 header information of the Ethernet frame

Answer: C

Analysis: When using a two-layer switch, the source MAC of the data packet will not be changed. When the data packet passes through the router, the source MAC of the data packet will be changed.

87. Which of the following types of ACLs cannot match network layer information?

A.Basic ACL

B. Layer 2 ACL

C.User ACL

D. Advanced ACL

Answer: B

Analysis: Layer 2 ACL can use source/destination MAC address and Layer 2 protocol type and other Layer 2 information to match packets. Its number range is 4000-4999.

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Origin blog.csdn.net/weixin_52808317/article/details/132382556